Đề thi học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 6 Phòng GD&ĐT Quảng Trạch (Quảng Bình) năm 2024-2025

Bài viết Đề thi học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 6 Phòng GD&ĐT Quảng Trạch tỉnh Quảng Bình năm 2024-2025 đề xuất cho kì thi HSG Tiếng Anh 6 các trường THCS tỉnh Quảng Bình. Mời các bạn đón đọc:

Đề thi học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 6 Phòng GD&ĐT Quảng Trạch (Quảng Bình) năm 2024-2025

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PHÒNG GD&ĐT QUẢNG TRẠCH

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2024-2025 Môn: Tiếng Anh -  Lớp 6 Thời  gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Chú ý :

* Đề thi gồm 08 trang.

* Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi này.

From question 1 to question 90, each question is worth 1 point. The essay is worth 10 points

SECTION ONE: LISTENING

Task 1: Listen and choose the best answer.

From 1 to 5, you will hear Anne asking her friend about going shopping centre.

Bài nghe:

1. At the moment the shopping centre sells ___________.

A. clothes                                           

B. books                                             

C. food

2. You can take a coach to the shopping centre on ___________.

A. Mondays                                       

B. Tuesdays                                       

C. Saturdays

3. Anne’s coach ticket will cost ___________.

A. £ 2.50                                            

B. £ 5.60                                            

C. £ 5.80

4. The nearest coach stop to Anne’s house is ___________.

A. in the bus station                           

B. in the market square                       

C. outsite the museum

5. The coach journey takes ___________.

A. 10 minutes                                    

B. 20 minutes                                     

C. 40 minutes

From 6 to 10, you will hear a news reporter called Angela Bond, talking on the radio about her job.

Bài nghe:

6. Where has Angela just returned from?

A. Britain                                           

B. the USA                                         

C. Asia                         

7. One thing Angela likes about her job is that she ___________.

A. loves being in dangerous situations

B. never knows where she'll go next

C. enjoys watching important events happen

8. What did Angela bring home from Hong Kong?

A. pictures                                          

B. carpets                                            

C. furniture    

9. Where did Angela meet her boyfriend?       

A. at her sister's house                       

B. at university                                    

C. in Thailand

10.  What does Angela do to relax?     

A. She goes sailing                            

B. She goes shopping                         

C. She cooks a meal 

Task 2: Listen to a talk between Mrs Mai and two students about their favourite programmes. You will listen TWICE. 

Bài nghe:

Name	Programme Name	Channel	Content	Feelings	Time
Mi	(11)    ___________	(12) ___________	funny (13) ___________	fun and relaxing to watch	6.00 p.m
Tom	(14) shark ___________	(15) ___________	a gigantic shark	(16) ___________	7.00 a.m
Mrs Mai	Journey to (17) ___________	(18) ___________	(19) ___________ and planets	interesting	(20) ___________

Task 3: Listen to the passage about the healthy eating pyramid and decide if these sentences are true or false. Write your T (true) or F (false) in the answer box. You will hear the recording twice.

Bài nghe:

21. You mustn’t eat sweet and salty food.                 

22. Dairy products do not contain Calcium.             

23. Beans and nuts are not important.           

24. Dark bread and brown rice are great sources of whole grains.

25. Fruit and vegetables are low in calories and full of vitamins.                

SECTION TWO: PHONETICS

Task 1: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.

26. A. healthy                      B. instead                         C. seaside                                D. breakfast

27. A. pleasant                     B. south                           C. similar                                D. sink

28. A. moved                        B. naked                           C. ploughed                               D. played

Task 2: Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.

29. A. gallery                          B. cathedral                            C. finally                                    D. bakery

30. A. season                           B. funny                                C. complete                                   D. student

SECTION THREE: LEXICO-GRAMMAR

Task 1: Choose the best answer from the four options (A or B, C, D) to complete each of the following sentences.

31. John: “___________?” - Mary: “That’s a great idea.”

A. Do you like playing sports                                    

B. Can you buy me some apples  

C. Why don’t we go out for dinner                            

D. May I borrow your pen

32. Football is a / an ___________ sport played between two teams of 11 players.

A. individual              

B. personal                             

C. competitive                            

D. team

33. The school cafeteria only opens ___________ lunchtime.

A. on                          

B. at                                       

C. in                                       

D. of

34. If we recycle more, our world ___________ greener.

A. will be                   

B. be                                       

C. is                                             

D. won’t be

35.  I don’t feel like cooking. Let’s ___________ tonight!

A. cut out                   

B. cook out                             

C. stay out                                   

D. eat out            

Task 2: Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets.

36. They ___________ (wait) for the bus when I saw them.

37. We ___________ (not finish) our project yet.

38. I (call) ___________ you as soon as I get back.

39. Nowadays many famous films (make) ___________ in Hollywood.

40. We can’t (go out) ___________ for a swim because it is raining.          

Task 3: Each sentence has a mistake. Find and correct it.

41. My father takes care of us very good.

                         A            B  C            D         

42. Next week, she’ll bring me some stamp and we’ll have dinner together.

                                      A                      B                       C                    D

43. You must taking off your shoes before entering this room.        

                         A             B                 C                     D        

44. She was waiting nervous in the waiting room for the interview.          

  A                     B                     C                 D

45. The town we visited was a four-days journey by bus from our hotel, so we took the train instead.

     A            B                                                                      C                      D

Task 4: Complete each sentence with appropriate form of the words in block capitals.

46. She is always ___________ when she crosses the road. (CARE)

47. This is the most ___________ app I’ve ever downloaded. (USE)

48. Tom phoned his friend to apologize for his ___________ at the get together. (POLITE)

49. Don’t eat too much, otherwise you will be ___________. (WEIGHT)

50. They ride their bicycles to the countryside for ___________. (PLEASE)

Task 5: Complete each sentence with a suitable form of one of the phrasal verbs in the box. Use each one once only. There is extra one that you do not need to use.

give up        look for           look after          turn down          put on      wait for

51. Please ___________ the TV. It’s too loud.

52. Don’t ___________ easily! You can do it!

53. It’s cold outside, so you should ___________ your coat.

54. My sister is three years old, so I must ___________ her after school.

55. I ___________ you at the bus stop yesterday.

SECTION FOUR:  READING COMPREHENSION

Task 1: Read the passage and fill in the gaps

In recent years, people have become more aware (56) ___________ the importance of protecting the environment. Many organizations and governments around the world have made great efforts to reduce (57) ___________. However, despite these efforts, the problem continues to ___________ (58) in many areas. The main reason for this is that some companies ignore the laws and continue to pollute the air and (59) ___________. It is important that everyone does their part to ensure a cleaner and healthier planet.

Some people believe that technology will (60) ___________ a major role (61) ___________ solving environmental problems. For example, scientists are working on new technologies to conserve energy and  (62) ___________ waste. In addition, governments are encouraging businesses to use renewable sources of (63) ___________ such as wind and solar power. These efforts (64) ___________ essential for a more sustainale future. It is clear that the fight against pollution requires not only immediate action but (65) ___________ long-term strategies.

 Task 2: Read and then choose the correct answer by circling A, B, C or D.

Dear Fred,

I’m so pleased when you are going to (66) ___________ my country. I‘ll try to give you as much information as I can about my city. First of all, you can stay at a small (67) ___________ near my house. It’s not very (68) ___________ and it’s located near the city center. If you want to (69) ___________ round the town, a taxi is the most (70) ___________ means of transportation, but it’s also the most expensive. If you want a cheap means, hire a bicycle and buy a (71) ___________. As this is the beginning of the summer, you shouldn’t fill your bags and suitcases with your warm (72) ___________, just bring light and convenient clothes. Remember to bring a (73) ___________ with you because you’ll be able to (74) ___________ a lot of photos. There are a lot of famous tourist (75) ___________ in my city, you can certainly visit them when you are here. I’ll take you out at the weekend.

66. A. go                                 B. travel                                  C. visit                                     D. know

67. A. hotel                             B. theater                                 C. restaurant                                       D. park

68. A. expensive                     B. fast                                      C. near                                                D. delicious

69. A. do                                 B. come                                   C. visit                                     D. travel

70. A. expensive                     B. convenient                          C. near                                     D. good

71. A. hat                                B. camera                                C. motorbike                             D. map

72. A. clothes                          B. trousers                               C. shirts                                     D. T-shirt

73. A. bag                                B. hat                                       C. camera                                  D. umbrella

74. A. bring                             B. take                                     C. do                                         D. see

75. A. attractions                    B. attract                                 C. attractive                               D. areas

     Task 3: Read the following passage then choose A, B, C or D to answer the questions below.

             One of the most important discoveries of the nineteenth century was a method of using natural gas for cooking and heating. Large amounts of natural gas are found in the United States, usually several thousand feet below the surface of the earth. Natural gas is most often found in places where petroleum, the oil from which gasoline is made, is found. Often the natural gas must be removed before the oil itself can be reached. For many years after natural gas was first discovered, it was thought to have no value. Finally, however, people began to understand its uses and to find ways of storing it and of moving it from place to place. Today natural gas is stored in large tanks and used for lighting, cooking, and heating. In many ways natural gas is one of our finest fuels. It can be used for cooking without making room hot. It is cheap and can be moved easily from one place to another through long pipelines, some of which are hundreds of miles in length.

76. It can be inferred from the passage that ___________.

A. natural gas is useless

B. people once wasted natural gas

C. natural gas is moved in trucks

D. natural gas is found where there is no petroleum

77. This article as a whole is about ___________.

A. discovering natural gas.                                        

B. finding petroleum.

C. using petroleum.                                                    

D. natural gas and use it.

78. Which of the following is NOT true?

A. Natural gas is not used for heat.                           

B. Natural gas is cheap.

C. Natural gas moves through pipes.                         

D. Natural gas can be stored.

79. The easiest way to move natural gas from one place to another is ___________.

A. by truck.                                                                

B. by underground passages.

C. through long pipelines.                                         

D. by car.

80. How many uses of natural gas are mentioned?

A. two                        

B. three                                  

C. four                                    

D. five

 SECTION FIVE: WRITING

Task 1: Use the word/phrase given to rewrite the second sentence has the same meaning to the first sentence

81. Unless you go to the gym, you won’t stay in shape.

→ If......................................................................................................................

82. What is the depth of the Gianh river?

→ How.................................................................................................................... ?

83. My mother often took me to school when I was a little child.

→ My mother used to......................................................................................................................

84. Kien has more comics than Trung.

→ Trung......................................................................................................................

85. I bought this bicycle two months ago.

→ I have......................................................................................................................

 Task 2: Complete each second sentence using the word given, so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence. Write between THREE and FIVE words.

86. There are many flowers in my school’s garden.                                                               LOT

→ My school’s garden......................................................................................................... flowers.

87. It takes me 20 minutes to ride a bike to school everyday.                                               RIDING

→ I.................................................................................................................... a bike to school everyday.

88. She can speak English very well.                                                                                     ABLE

→ She is.......................................................................................................... English very well.

89. They like playing football more than going to the zoo.                                                   PREFER

→ They............................................................................................................. going to the zoo.    

90. You must arrive on time.                                                                                                   IMPORTANT

→ It is very............................................................................................................. arrive on time.                       

 Task 3: Write a paragraph (about 100-120 words) to tell about your favourite festival.

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