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Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi khảo sát Học sinh giỏi

năm 2024-2025

Bài thi môn: Tiếng Anh lớp 6

Thời gian làm bài: phút

(Đề số 1)

SECTION 1. LISTENING. (2.5 points)

Part 1. You will hear a school teacher talking to a group of students about a national poetry competition. For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space.

POETRY COMPETITION FOR SCHOOL

The competition for 11-14s is called the (1) ____________ Prize.

The topic for this year is (2) ____________.

This year the prize money available is (3) ____________ euros.

If successful, school will spend the money on the (4) ____________.

For further help, see the (5) ____________.

Part 2. You will hear a news reporter called Angela Bond, talking on the radio about her job. Choose the best word A, B, or C for each space.

1. Where has Angela just returned from?

A. Britain

B. The USA

C. Asia

2. One thing Angela dislikes about her job is that she ____________.

A. loves being dangerous situations

B. never knows where she’ll go next

C. enjoys watching important events happen

Quảng cáo

3. What did Angela bring home from Hong Kong?

A. Pictures

B. Carpets

C. Furniture

4. Where did Angela meet her boyfriend?

A. At her sister’s house

B. At university

C. In Thailand

5. What does Angela do to relax?

A. She cooks a meal.

B. She goes sailing.

C. She goes shopping.

Quảng cáo

SECTION 2. PHONETICS (2.0 points)

Part 1. Choose the word A, B, C, or D which has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the rest.

A. laughs

B. tyres

C. students

D. books

A. future

B. statue

C. customer

D. culture

A. city

B. ceiling

C. ocean

D. palace

Quảng cáo

A. advised

B. promised

C. expressed

D. washed

Part 2. Choose the word A, B, C, or D with different stress pattern.

A. delicious

B. difficult

C. dangerous

D. different

2. A. activity

B. badminton

C. bamboo

D. aerobics

3. A. sandwich

B. listen

C. cartoon

D. toothpaste

4. A. correct

B. receive

C. visit

D. unload

SECTION 3. VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR (4.5 points)

Part 1. Choose the best answer A, B, C, or D to complete each sentence.

1. London is famous for ____________ red buses.

A. it’s

B. its

C. it

D. their

2. We always need more players. Why don’t you come ____________?

A. on

B. along

C. with

D. after

3. Airmail is ____________ than surface mail.

A. much expensive

B. very more expensive

C. much more expensive

D. more much expensive

4. This program is very ____________.

A. inform

B. information

C. informative

D. informing

5. – “____________ a nice T-shirt, Trang!” – “Thank you”

A. How

B. What

C. Which

D. It

6. Trees drop their leaves in the ____________.

A. spring

B. summer

C. autumn

D. winter

7. I can’t understand why ____________ such bad words.

A. did she say

B. does she say

C. she said

D. she says

8. If we cut down more trees, there ____________ more floods.

A. are

B. were

C. have been

D. will be

9. We should use reusable water bottles ____________ of plastic ones.

A. instead

B. because

C. despite

D. however

10. We should use ____________ pens and pencils to reduce rubbish.

A. reliable

B. reusable

C. refillable

D. sociable

11. ____________ lives in a very big palace.

A. A Queen of England

B. Queen of England

C. The Queen of the England

D. The Queen of England

12. Tom: “____________” - Jane: “She is kind.”

A. What does your teacher like?

B. What would your teacher like?

C. What does your teacher look like?

D. What is your teacher like?

Part 2. Give the correct form of the words in capital to complete the sentences.

1. Don’t make a fire here. It is very ____________. (DANGER)

2. Mr. John is a ____________. (BUSINESS)

3. That ____________ can play the guitar very well. (MUSIC)

4. She plays badminton ____________ a week. (TWO)

5. Is Chuong My a ____________ district? (MOUNTAIN)

6. These children like ____________ weather. (SUN)

SECTION 4. READING (5.5 points)

Part 1. Read the following passage, then choose the letter A, B, C, or D that best fits each of the blanks.

Soccer fans are crazy about their favorite teams. They are even wilder about their favorite players. One of the most (1) ____________ soccer players in the world is David Beckham He becomes a celebrity (2) ____________ he has talent, passion and a distinct image.

Beckham has always had a passion for soccer. As a boy, he dreaabout playing for Manchester United. In 1991, his wish came (3) ____________ when he qualified for United’s junior team Beckham team’s team won the Football Association Youth Cup in his first (4) ____________.

When he was 18 years old, he became a professional player. By outshining the other players on his team, Beckham was appointed the captain and he (5) ____________ a very important role in almost all matches. Fans and teammates were (6) ____________ by how well he took penalty kicks and how far he could kick the ball. (7) ____________ a goal from the halfway line proved that he deserved to be the highest-paid soccer player in the world. Changing from Manchester United to Real Madrid only (8) ____________ Beckham’s popularity.

A. well

B. popular

C. intelligent

D. hard-working

A. because

B. because of

C. though

D. so

A. okay

B. right

C. true

D. correct

A. time

B. year

C. contract

D. season

A. took

B. did

C. played

D. made

A. amazed

B. amazing

C. amazement

D. amazingly

A. Kicking

B. Shooting

C. Scoring

D. Setting

A. high

B. height

C. highly

D. heightened

Part 2. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question.

Sumo

Sumo wrestling is a national sport in Japan. Every year there are six tournaments, and millions of Japanese watch them on television. Sumo is almost as old as the nation of Japan itself. Stories say that there was sumo wrestling over 2,000 years ago. History says that there were national sumo tournaments in the eighth century.

Usually athletes are thin and can move very quickly. It is beautiful to watch them play. However, sumo wrestlers weigh from 100 to 160 kilos. One famous wrestler weighed 195 kilos. Sumo wrestlers do not look beautiful, and sumo wrestling is very slow sport.

Sumo wrestlers wrestle in a round ring with a sand floor. A wrestler loses the match if he leaves the ring. He is also the loser if any part of the body except his feet touches the floor. Each wrestler tries to push the other down on the floor or out of the ring.

People from other countries usually think sumo is very strange, but the Japanese love it. Even young people find this traditional sport exciting.

1. How old is Sumo wrestling?

A. Over twenty years

B. Over two hundred years

C. Over two thousand years

D. Over two million years

2. Sumo wrestling is a national sport in ____________.

A. Japan

B. Korea

C. China

D. Thailand

3. Sumo wrestling is a very ____________.

A. slow sport

B. fast sport

C. boring sport

D. dangerous sport

4. A sumo wrestler loses the match if ____________.

A. his feet touch the floor

B. he is inside the ring

C. he pushes the other down

D. he is out of the ring

5. Young Japanese people find Sumo wrestling ____________.

A. quickly

B. exciting

C. boring

D. bad

6. The word “famous” in paragraph 2 is CLOSEST in meaning to ____________.

A. ugly

B. strong

C. well-known

D. weak

Part 3. Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word.

Fishing (1) ____________ my favorite pastime. I often fish for hours (2) ____________ catching anything. But this does not worry me. Some fishermen (3) ____________ unlucky. Instead of catching (4) ____________, they catch old boots or rubbish. I am even less lucky. I never catch anything - not even old boots. After having spent whole mornings (5) ____________ the river, I always (6) ____________ home with an empty bag. “You must give up fishing!”, my friends (7) ____________: “It’s a waste of (8) ____________”. But they don’t realize that I am not really interested in fishing. I am only interested in sitting alone in a boat and doing nothing.

SECTION 5. WRITING (5.5 points)

Part 1. Circle the letter A, B, C, or D before the mistake in each sentence.

1. Do you know how much a dictionary cost?

A. know

B. cost

C. a

D. much

2. My future house will have a lots of modern appliances.

A. lots

B. appliances

C. have

D. My

3. People might live in the Mars next 50 years.

A. might

B. in

C. live

D. years

4. That’s my father over there. He stands near the window.

A. That’s

B. there

C. stands

D. near

Part 2. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the first one.

1. Do you and your friends walk to school every day?

→ Do you and your friends go..............................................................................

2. We have English class at 7.15.

→ Our English class...........................................................................................

3. Let’s go to the beach and have a good time there.

→ How about.....................................................................................................

4. I spend two hours a day doing my homework.

→ It....................................................................................................................

5. No one in my class is as lazy as Tom.

→ Tom...............................................................................................................

Part 3. Make all the changes and additions necessary to.

1. Mr. Jones/ rather/ watch TV/ home/ go/ the cinema/.

→........................................................................................................................

2. I/ have difficulty/ make/ friends/ foreign people/.

→........................................................................................................................

3. Christmas/,/ neighborhoods/ beautiful/ many/ bright Christmas lights/.

→.......................................................................................................................

4. I/ buy/ lot/ gifts/ my friends/ when/ pay/ visit/ Trang An/ last Sunday.

→......................................................................................................................

5. Miss Thanh/ take/ five-hour flight/ Japan/ back/ home/ next weekend/.

→......................................................................................................................

Part 4. Nowadays, young children especially teenagers spend a lot of time using smart phones. You should write a paragraph between 120 and 150 words to express your ideas about it.

...............................................................................................................................

THE END

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi khảo sát Học sinh giỏi

năm 2024-2025

Bài thi môn: Tiếng Anh lớp 6

Thời gian làm bài: phút

(Đề số 2)

SECTION I. LISTENING (20 pts)

Part 1. Listen to the recording and choose the circle the best option (A, B, C, or D) for the following statements and questions. (5 pts)

1. Where does the man want to go?

A. Tokyo Tower

B. Tokyo Subway Station

C. Tokyo Art Museum

D. Tokyo Hotel

2. How much is the train fare?

A. 140 yen

B. 130 yen

C. 150 yen

D. 170 yen

3. Where should the man get on the train?

A. platform number 3

B. platform number 1

C. platform number 5

D. platform number 4

4. How often do the trains come?

A. about every seven minutes

B. about every five minutes

C. about every six minutes

D. about every nine minutes

5. Where should the man get off the train?

A. at Kamiyacho Station

B. at Kamigaya Station

C. at Kamiyama Station

D. Kami Oragal Station

Part 2. Listen and decide whether the statements are True (T) or False (F). (5 pts)

6. When Randall’s children were little, he used to goes to bed early on New Year’s Eve.

7. Randall used to play games with friends to celebrate the new year.

8. Randall and his friends used to eat salad with a lot of vegetables in it on New Year’s Eve.

9. Now, Randall usually goes for a drive on New Year’s Eve.

10. Randall loves the simple of life.

Part 3. Listen and write the correct answer in the gap for each question (write on word or a number or a date or a time). You will hear a woman talking to sailing club member about a trip. (10 pts)

Redlands Music Festival
Starts on:	(11) ____________ August
Finish:	(12) ____________ August
Place:	Prospect Park, (13) ____________ Redlands
Tickets	phone (14) ____________ for buying from the festival (15) ____________.
Price of tickets:	- (16) ____________ pounds - Group bookings get a (17) ____________% discount.
You can also buy (18) ____________, T-shirts, (19) ____________ and (20) ____________ at the festival.

SECTION II. PHONETICS (5 pts)

Part 1. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the rest by circling your answer (A, B, C, or D). (3 pts)

21.

A. massage

B. carriage

C. voyage

D. dosage

22.

A. book

B. food

C. cook

D. look

23.

A. washes

B. matches

C. wishes

D. arrives

Part 2. Choose the letter (A, B, C, or D) with the word whose main stress is placed differently from the others. (2 pts)

24.

A. concert

B. teenager

C. comfortable

D. cartoon

25.

A. enjoy

B. finish

C. visit

D. happen

SECTION 3. LEXICAL – GRAMMAR (30 pts)

Part 1. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) which best completes each sentence. (10 pts)

26. Duong: “I’m hungry now, Mum!” – Mother: “____________”

A. Would you like to go out?

B. Let’s cook dinner now.

C. Why are you so hungry?

D. Here is some bread and butter for you.

27. All of us ____________ at home yesterday evening.

A. were

B. was

C. did

D. are

28. Minh is an active and strong boy. He does ____________ karate twice a week.

A. a

B. X

C. the

D. an

29. We have little time left. We will ____________ the last bus if you don’t hurry, boy.

A. take

B. see

C. miss

D. catch

30. I am very thin. Why should I eat if I want to ____________ weight?

A. go off

B. go on

C. put off

D. put on

31. You can volunteer by ____________ children from poor family in your community.

A. tutoring

B. singing

C. encouraging

D. talking

32. Cyclists must ____________ for pedestrians when they are cycling along the country lane.

A. take notice

B. look out

C. see off

D. look at

33. – “Thank you very much for your help.” – “____________”

A. Never mind.

B. No problem.

C. That’s right.

D. No, thanks.

34. My best friend is very ____________. He always tells funny stories and makes us laugh.

A. serious

B. boring

C. humorous

D. shy

35. People often decorate their houses with colorful lights on the tress at ____________.

A. holiday

B. Mid-Autumn Festival

C. Christmas

D. Halloween

Part 2. Put the verbs given in brackets into the appropriate tenses or forms. (5 pts)

36. I wish I (can) ____________ fly like a bird.

37. Look! A man (run) ____________ after the train.

38. It’s the first time I (eat) ____________ sushi.

39. I will not go out until it (stop) ____________ raining.

40. They pretended (not see) ____________ me when I walked past.

Part 3. Fill in each blank with the correct preposition. (5 pts)

41. I will arrive at the airport ____________ 7 a.m. tomorrow.

42. I prefer tea ____________ coffee in the morning.

43. The hotel is located ____________ the center of the city.

44. We were not aware ____________ the danger ahead.

45. She takes great pride ____________ her work and always does her best.

Part 4. Complete each sentence with appropriate form of the word in block capitals. (5 pts)

46. In Sweden, it is customary at a dinner party for the person sitting on the left of the hostess to make a ____________. (SPEAK)

47. He was not a particularly good teacher, but his students loved him because he had such a lively ____________. (PERSON)

48. Nobody likes him because of his ____________. (TIDY)

49. ____________, the typhoon caused serious damage to the village. (LUCKY)

50. We couldn’t see the airplane because it ____________ behind the cloud. (APEPAR)

Part 5. There is ONE mistake in each sentence. Circle and correct it. (5 pts)

51. You should take regularly exercise in order to stay healthy.

A B C D

52. Stay far from sweets because they’re not good for your teeth.

A B C D

53. Would you like to have a dinner at my house tonight?

A B C D

54. The public library in the city has thousand of good books.

A B C D

55. Tom Hanks is one of the most famous and rich actors in Hollywood.

A B C D

SECTION 4. READING COMPREHENSION (20 pts)

Part 1. Complete the passage with the missing words. Use only ONE word in each gap. (10 pts)

There are many beautiful cities (56) ____________ the world, each with its own unique culture and history. Some cities are famous (57) ____________ their modern buildings, while others are known for their historical landmarks (58) ____________ traditions.

One of the (59) ____________ famous cities in the world is Paris, the capital of (60) ____________. It is well known for the Eiffel (61) ____________, the Louvre Museum, and its delicious (62) ____________. Another well-known city is London, which is the capital of the UK. It (63) ____________ many historical sites, including Big Ben and Buckingham Palace.

In Asia, Tokyo is a bustling city with a (64) ____________ of traditional and modern culture. It is one of the most populated (65) ____________ in the world and is famous for its advanced technology and delicious food like sushi. Meanwhile, New York City in the US is called “the city that never sleeps” because it is always full of life, with many attractions like Times Square and the Statue of Liberty.

Part 2. Read the following passage and choose the best option to answer. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0 pt)

School of the Air

Many of us may be surprised to hear the name “School of the air”, but there are over ten of them in Australia. Alice Springs School of the Air is one of these in the Northern Territory. The school provides an educational service for about 120 children living in Central Australia.

Students of this school live far from each other, so they don't have normal lessons in classrooms, but they study at their homes. They get lessons from their teachers through post or e-mail. They have to work five or six hours a day, five days a week. They send their work to the teachers and discuss it over the Internet. They can borrow books from the school library, and the books arrive by post. They also take part in outside classroom activities such as sports and games.

66. How many “Schools of the Air” are there in Australia?

A. One

B. More than ten

C. About twenty

D. Over a hundred

67. Where is Alice Springs School of the Air located?

A. In Southern Australia

B. In Western Australia

C. In the Northern Territory

D. In New South Wales

68. Alice Springs School of the Air teaches children in ____________.

A. Central Australia

B. Northern Australia

C. all Australia

D. Western Australia

69. Why don’t the students have normal lessons in classrooms?

A. Because they have no teachers

B. Because they don’t like going to school

C. Because they only study online

D. Because they live too far from each other

70. How do students receive their lessons?

A. By going to school

B. Through post or e-mail

C. From their parents

D. By watching TV

71. How many hours a day do students usually study?

A. 3 or 4 hours

B. 7 or 8 hours

C. 5 or 6 hours

D. More than 10 hours

72. How do students send their work to teachers?

A. Over the Internet

B. By writing letters

C. By meeting them in person

D. By fax

73. Which of the following is NOT true?

A. Students don’t have lessons at weekends.

B. Students receive their work by post or email

C. Students can play sports and games.

D. Students can read books in the library.

74. The word “them” in the first paragraph refers to ____________.

A. many of us

B. schools in general

C. schools of the air

D. children living in Central Australia

75. What is the main topic of the passage?

A. A famous school in Australia

B. A new way or learning in classrooms

C. The importance of education

D. A special type of school in Australia

SECTION 5. WRITING

Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentences printed before it. (5 pts)

76. Do you find it easy to make friends?

→ Are you good....................................................................................................

77. Laura is a more confident teacher of pronunciation than I am.

→ Laura teaches..................................................................................................

78. John and Mary moved to Edinburgh twenty years ago.

→ It is..................................................................................................................

79. Our runner was too exhausted to complete the last lap of the race.

→ One runner was so.........................................................................................

80. Why don’t you go to Sydney with our class?

→ How about......................................................................................................

Part 2. Use the given word to write the second sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do not change the form of the given word. You must use between TWO and FIVE words, including the word given. (5 pts)

81. It’s a long time since I saw him. (FOR)

→ I.................................................................................................. a long time.

82. It’s good idea when she goes to school on time. (SHOULD)

→ She....................................................................................................... on time.

83. He won the competition because he worked hard. (OF)

→ He won the competition................................................................................

84. Although he was tired, he continued working. (DESPITE)

→............................................................................................. , he continued working.

85. If she arrives late, keep her dinner in the fridge. (CASE)

→ Keep her dinner in the fridge............................................................................ late.

Part 3. Using the given words to complete these sentences (CAN CHANGE THE WORDS GIVEN BUT DO NOT DELETE). (5 pts)

86. This/ be/ the most interesting book/ I/ ever/ read.

→................................................................................................................................................

87. Unless/ you/ study/ hard, you/ not/ pass/ exam.

→................................................................................................................................................

88. They/ prefer/ read/ books/ watch TV/ because/ books/ more informative.

→................................................................................................................................................

89. She/ not/ intelligent/ also/ creative/ in/ solve problems.

→................................................................................................................................................

90. Students/ have to/ complete/ their assignments/ before/ deadline/ or/ they/ lose/ points.

→................................................................................................................................................

Part 4. Read the letter Tom sent to Anna:

Hi Anna,

I hope you’re doing well! Some people said that “News program on TV is boring” but others said that “They like watching News program on TV so much”. For me, I watch it almost every day because I find it very useful and interesting.

How about you? Do you like it? Why do/ don’t you like it? How often do you watch it? I’m really curious to know your opinion on this. I look forward to your reply!

Have a great day!

Tom

Imagine that you are Anna and write an email in English of about 80 words to reply to Tom’s email. (10 pts)

...............................................................................................................................

THE END

................................

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