Đề thi HSG Tiếng Anh 6 Phòng GD&ĐT Sơn Động (Bắc Giang) năm 2023-2024

Bài viết Đề thi học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 6 Phòng GD&ĐT Sơn Động , tỉnh Bắc Giang năm 2023-2024 đề xuất cho kì thi HSG Tiếng Anh 6 các trường THCS tỉnh Bắc Giang. Mời các bạn đón đọc:

Đề thi HSG Tiếng Anh 6 Phòng GD&ĐT Sơn Động (Bắc Giang) năm 2023-2024

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PHÒNG GD & ĐT SƠN ĐỘNG   ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI VĂN HÓA CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2023 – 2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6 Ngày thi: 29/01/2024 Thời gian 120 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề.

LƯU Ý:         

- Đề thi gồm 08 trang, thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi.

- Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu nào kể cả từ điển.

PHẦN 1. TRẮC NGHIỆM (40 ĐIỂM)      

I. LISTENING (15 points)

Bài nghe:

Part 1. Listen to the recording and circle the appropriate answer A, B or C. You will hear the conversations twice. (5 points)

Example: What time is it?

A. 06.00

B. 08.00

C. 09.00

Question 1. What have they forgotten?

A. the tickets

B. the camera

C. the passports

 Question 2. What time does the train go?

A. at six fifteen

B. at six fifty

C. at six ten

Question 3. Where is Room 22?

A. The first door on the right.        

B. The second door on the right.       

C. The second door on the left.

 Question 4. Which man wants to see him?

A. The man wearing a hat without glasses.  

B. The man wearing a hat with glasses. 

C. The man with glasses.

Question 5. How did the woman get to work?

 A. by bike

B. by bus

C. by car

Part 2. You will hear five short conversations, You will hear the conversation twice. There is one question for each conversation. Circle A, B or C. (5 points)

WHAT A BUSY DAY!

Question 6. What does Susan have to do on Saturday morning?

A. walk the dog

B. clean the house

C. go to the doctor

Question 7. Where does Susan have to go at 12:30?

A. to school

B. to the dentist

C. to the science museum

Question 8. What time is Susan meeting with Julie?

A. at 12:00 p.m.

B. at 1:00 p.m.

C. at 2:00 p.m.

Question 9. What will Susan do after she cooks dinner?

A. clean the dishes                             

B. call a friend                                   

C. play soccer with her brother         

Question 10. Why can't they watch a video at Susan's house?

A. Susan doesn’t like watching TV  

B. Susan's mother is going to use it.

C. The TV isn't working.

Part 3. Listen to the recording and indicate whether these statements are True (T) or False  (F). (5 pts)

Question 11. In some countries the weather is generally not warm.

Question 12. In some other places, it is cold from January to December.

Question 13. Some countries have difficult types of weather during different times of the year.

Question 14. In summer, plants start growing again.

Question 15. When summer comes, people can go swimming in the sea or in the lake.     

=== THE END OF THE LISTENING ===

II. PHONETICS:

Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest. (3 points)

Question 16. A. hoped            B. looked                                C. designed                                    D. washed

Question 17. A. oranges         B. changes                             C. watches                                    D. notes

Question 18. A. newsreader   B. weather                              C. week                                    D. leave

Choose the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. (2 points)

Question 19. A. expensive      B. comfortable                                    C. popular                                    D. dangerous

Question 20. A. championshipB. badminton                          C. programmes                D. educational

III. VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FOCUS – LANGUAGE FUNCTION: 15 POINTS

Choose A, B, C or D for each gap in the following sentences (15 points)

Question 21. ___________ you study for these exams, ___________ you will do.

A. The more/ the much

B. The harder / the better

C. The hardest / the best

D. The more hard / the more good

Question 22. My sister has ___________ lamp in her room.

A. a beautiful old Indian

B. an old beautiful Indian

C. a beautiful Indian old

D. an Indian old beautiful

Question 23. If we plant more trees in the schoolyard, the school ___________ a greener place.

A. become

B. becoming

C. will become

D. becomes

Question 24. These three Rs ___________ reduce, reuse, and recycle

A. stand up

B. stand for

C. ask for

D. means

Question 25. ‘Some experts say robots will be smarter than humans within two decades.’ - ‘___________. A robot is just a machine, I think.’

A. I totally disagree

B. Not for me.

C. Never mind

D. I agree

Question 26. Lan: “___________ are you going to Tay Yen Tu Town, Nga?” - Nga: “ To attend the festival”.

A. How

B. What

C. When

D. Why

Question 27. I think Son Doong Cave is by far ___________ cave in Vietnam.

A. beautiful

B. the most beautifu

lC. more beautiful than

D. most beautiful

Question 28. It is ___________ to live far from the market and the supermarket.

A. easy

B. inconvenient

C. convenient

D. comfortable

Question 29. I am having a Maths lesson but I forgot my ___________. I have some difficulty.

A. calculator

B. bicycle

C. pencil case

D. pencil sharpener

Question 30. Students live and study in a/an ___________ school. They only go home at weekends.

A. international

B. small

C. boarding

D. overseas

Question 31. Have you ever ___________ aerobics? Aerobic exercise can help you to lose weight.

A. do

B. done

C. did

D. doing

Question 32. Tom: “Yesterday I played tennis with my brother, and I won” - Mary: “___________”

A. Yes, I’d love to

B. You’re welcome

C. No, thanks

D. Congratulations!

Question 33. She doesn’t go to the zoo, ___________?

A. does she

B. doesn’t she

C. is she

D. isn’t she

Question 34. ‘The car of the future will probably run on water.’ ‘___________’

A. Good job!

B. How fantastic!

C. Good idea!

D. Well done!

Question 35. Peter: “We  have a wireless TV to watch TV programmes from space” - John: “___________”

A. Neither do I

B. I am too

C. So do I

D. I don’t either

IV. Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question below (5 points)   

            Tokyo is the capital of Japan. In Tokyo, there are always too many people in the place where you want to come.

            People are very polite even when they often spend a long time on traffic jams. Tokyo is different from London when you want to walk to a place.

            During the day, most people travel to work by train. Tokyo people buy six million train tickets every day. Although they are usually crowded, Japanese trains are very good. They always leave and arrive on time. On a London train, everybody in a seat seems to be asleep whether the journey is long or short.

            The worst time to be in the street at night is about 11.30 when the nightclubs are closing and everybody wants to go home.

36. Tokyo is different from London because ___________.

A. it is more difficult to walk to somewhere

B. it is a noisy city

C. it has a larger population

D. its people are friendly and more polite

37. When does the writer think the worst time to go into the street?

A. At 11.30 am

B. At 8.00 am.

C. When the trains are full.

D. When the nightclubs are closing.

38. What does the writer think of Japanese trains?

A. They are very nice and comfortable.

B. There are not enough trains.

C. They often run late.

D. They leave and arrive on time.

39. In London trains, every British in a seat ___________.

A. reads a newspaper

B. looks like being asleep

C. talks with other people

D. looks out of the window.

40. Which statement is NOT true according to the passage?

A. Most people in Tokyo travel to work by train.

B. It is very difficult to go around in Tokyo.

C. When Japanese people are on traffic jams, they are not polite.

D. Trains in Tokyo are very good - they always leave and arrive on time.

PHẦN 2. TỰ LUẬN (60 ĐIỂM)

A. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (20 points)

I. Supply the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (10 pts)

41. He (learn) ___________ English since he came here.

42. (not watch) ___________ television too much, it’s harmful for your health.

43. His parents (buy) ___________ a new house if he has enough money?

44. Le Tam wants (be) ___________ a teacher after he leaves school.

45. Look at the dark clouds in the sky over there. It (rain) ___________.

46. They (visit) ___________ their grandparents now?

47. He (study) ___________ hard when he was young.

48. Five kilometres (be) ___________ a distance from his house to school.

49. He will visit me as soon as he (arrive) ___________ Bac Giang.

50. My younger sister doesn’t enjoy (eat) ___________ vegetables and fish for dinner. 

II. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs and words in the brackets to complete the following sentences. (5 points)

51. I couldn’t find any ___________ between the two pictures. (DIFFERENT)

52. Rubber is elastic, so we can ___________ this string. (LONG)

53. I'd like two ___________ of bread because I'm hungry now. (LOAF)

54. I like reading books because they are ___________. (INFORM)

55. The children are all ___________ about going to the circus tonight. (EXCITE)

III. Each sentence contains a mistake. Underline the mistakes and write the mistake and your correction in the numbered space provided. (5 points)

56.  The Royal Palace is one of the largest palace in Europe.

57. Do you think the most popular Vietnamese writer of children is To Hoai?

58. Sydney Opera House is an UNESCO World Heritage building.

59. The Merlion is a creature with the head of a lion so the body of a fish.

60. You can play boating on the West Lake and it is very nice.

B. READING (15 points)

I. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word given in the box. (10 points)   

            Ba's class has a (61) ___________ on waste paper. His friends are so (62) ___________ to learn that every day throughout the world, millions of newspapers and paper bags are (63) ___________ away. People are collecting waste paper and (64) ___________ it. Making paper (65) ___________ a lot of trees and labor. Now if people don't (66) ___________ paper, they can save (67) ___________ and labor. Especially, people can save the natural (68) ___________. For every (69) ___________ of recycled newsprint, ten trees can be saved. The more paper people save, the more natural resources are (70) ___________.

III. Read the text and choose the most suitable heading (A-G) for each paragraph (1-5). There are two extra headings that you do not need. (5pts)

KEEPING OUR TEETH HEALTHY

A. You can fill small holes in your teeth.

B. Something you eat is good for your teeth, but something isn’t.

C. Strong teeth are necessary for our health and appearance.

D. Chocolate, sweets and biscuits are sometimes used after meals.

E. Toothbrush and toothpaste help clean your teeth.

F. Tooth decay makes our teeth bad.

G. You should go to the dentist at least two times a year.

71. It is very important to have healthy teeth. Good teeth help us to chew our food. They also help us to look nice.

72. How does a tooth go bad? The decay begins in a little crack in the enamel covering of the toot. This happens after germs and bits of food have collected there. Then the decay slowly spreads inside to tooth. Eventually, poison goes into the blood, and we may feel quite ill.

73. How can we keep out teeth healthy? First, we ought to visit our dentist twice a year. He can fill the small holes in our teeth before they destroy the teeth. He can examine our teeth to check that they are growing in the right way. Unfortunately, many people wait until they have toothache before they see a dentist.

74. Secondly, we should brush our teeth with a toothbrush and fluoride toothpaste at least twice a day – once after breakfast and once before we go to bed. We can also use wooden toothpicks to clean between our teeth after a meal.

75. Thirdly, we should eat food that is good for our teeth and our body: milk, cheese, fish, brown bread, potatoes, red rice, raw vegetables, and fresh fruit. Chocolate, sweets, biscuits and cakes are bad, especially when we eat them between meals. They are harmful because they stick to our teeth and cause decay. 

C. WRITING (25 points)

I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before. (10 points)

76. My friend is too short to play volleyball.

🖎 My friend isn’t......................................................................................................................

77. Peter last visited Nha Trang a long time ago.

🖎 Peter hasn’t......................................................................................................................

78. I’d prefer you not to make noise in class.

🖎 I’d rather......................................................................................................................

79. Minh never watches TV while he is doing his homework.

🖎 Never......................................................................................................................

80. Learning English is interesting.

🖎 It......................................................................................................................

81. Mr. Lam drives very carefully.

🖎 Mr. Lam is......................................................................................................................

82. Mr Ba flew to Ho Chi Minh City last week.

🖎 Mr. Ba went......................................................................................................................

83. Janet loves eating noodles the best.

🖎 Janet’s favorite......................................................................................................................

84. Let’s have a talk on the ways of keeping our neighborhood clean and beautiful.

🖎 What.................................................................................................................... ?

85. Do you have a cheaper refrigerator?

🖎 Is this.................................................................................................................... ?

II. Use NO MORE THAN SIX WORDS, including the word given to complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one. Do not change the word given. (5 points)

86. I think that no city is more beautiful than Paris. (MOST)

🖎 I think Paris................................................................................................................... in the world.

87. How much time does he spend doing his homework every day?. (TAKE)

🖎 How long.................................................................................................................. his homework every day?

88. You will miss the last bus to school if you don’t hurry up. (UNLESS)

🖎........................................................................................................... , you will miss the last bus to school.

89. I can’t afford to buy a new car. (EXPENSIVE)

🖎 A new car................................................................................................................... to buy.

90. I advise you to obey the traffic rules strictly. (HAD BETTER)

🖎 You................................................................................................................. the traffic rules strictly.

III. Write a passage (80 – 100 words) about an ideal place you want to live in. (10 pts)

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