Bộ Đề kiểm tra, đề thi Tiếng Anh 12 Học kì 2 năm 2024 có đáp án (15 đề)

Phần dưới là danh sách Top 15 Đề kiểm tra Tiếng Anh 12 Học kì 2 chọn lọc, có đáp án gồm các đề kiểm tra 15 phút, đề thi giữa kì, đề thi học kì. Hi vọng bộ đề thi này sẽ giúp bạn ôn luyện & đạt điểm cao trong các bài thi Tiếng Anh 12.

Đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng Anh 12

Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề kiểm tra 15 phút học kì 2

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 15 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 1: Make sure you _____ up the data on your computer, because you might get a virus.

A. back B. store

C. save D. copy

Question 2: That's no excuse! You know you ______ this report by today.

A. can’t have finished

B. must have finished

C. may not have finished

D. should have finished

Question 3: Indiana University, one of the largest in the nation, is located in a ____ town.

A. small beautiful Midwestern

B. beautiful Midwestern small

C. Midwestern beautiful small

D. beautiful small Midwestern

Question 4: I was tired when you saw me because I ______ for the exam.

A. studied

B. have been studying

C. had been studying

D. would study

Question 5: The ______ on the kitchen table.

A. grocery is

B. grocery are

C. groceries is

D. groceries are

Question 6: This winter wasn’t _______ as difficult as last winter.

A. almost B. nearly

C. closely D. just

Question 7: _____ we understand his reasons, we cannot accept his behaviour.

A. As if B. What if

C. Even if D. Only if

Question 8: His speech was careful and ______, but his words seemed to make no sense.

A. distinctive

B. distinction

C. distinct

D. distinguish

Question 9: Tom: “Is there anything interesting _____ the paper today?" Anna: “Well, there’s an unusual picture ____ the back page ”

A. on – on B. in – on

C. in – in D. on - in

Question 10: Mrs. Davies asked me to tell you that she would like _____ by Friday at the latest.

A. the orders sent

B. sending the orders

C. sent the orders

D. that you sent

Question 11: It's _____ unique opportunity to see African wildlife in its natural environment.

A. the B. no article

C. a D. an

Question 12: The hotel was terrible, but the wonderful beach _______ our disappointment.

A. came down with

B. made up for

C. got through to

D. faced up to

Question 13: The book would have been perfect ________ the ending.

A. it hadn’t been for

B. hadn’t it been for

C. it had not been for

D. had it not been for

Question 14: Cynthia: “Hi, Victor. Do you think it’s possible for us to have a talk sometime today?" Victor: “I’d love to, but______."

A. it's pretty tight schedule today.

B. I'm pretty tight schedule today.

C. it has a pretty tight schedule today.

D. I’ve got a pretty tight schedule today.

Question 15: John: “What time did the meeting end?'' - Laura: “_______."

A. As soon as possible.

B. For half an hour.

C. In a minute.

D. Just before lunch

Đáp án & Thang điểm

1A	2D	3D	4C	5D
6B	7C	8A	9B	10D
11C	12B	13D	14D	15D

Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Giữa học kì 2

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respone to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 1: Ann: “Passing a university entrance exam is not difficult.” - John: “_____.”

A. I couldn’t agree more. It is not easy at all.

B. But I don’t. I failed it last year.

C. I do, too. I passed it last year.

D. You must be kidding. It’s not easy.

Question 2: Mary: “Our team has just won that English Competition.” - Anne: “_____”

A. Good ideas. Thanks for the news.

B. Well, that’s very surprising

C. Yes, I guess it’s very good

D. Yes, it’s our pleasure

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Facebook is a for-profit online social media and social networking service. The Facebook website was launched on February 4th, 2004 by Mark Zuckerberg, along with fellow Harvard College students and roommates. Since 2006, anyone age 13 and older has been allowed to become a registered user of Facebook though variations exist in minimum age requirement, depending on applicable local laws.

Over 25 million people in the Uk use Facebook. That’s 45% of population! And on average, each user spends over six hours a month on Facebook. Though not the highest this is a considerable number. Is Facebook is a dangerous obsession or just harmless fun? Seventeen- year-old Bethan has written on her blog about what it was like to stop using Facebook.

I think I am a Facebook addict. I log on to Facebook everyday to chat to my friends real friends and loads of online friends. Sometimes I have ten conversations going at the same time. I upload photos and update my Facebook profile all the time. But recently I’ve started to feel worried if I am offline for more than a few hours. And then last week I forgot to meet a real friend because I was online! I’ve realised I could have a problem. So I’ve decided to give it up for a while.

I found it really hard. Facebook and my friends demanded to know why I had left. I spent the first few evenings wondering what everyone was chatting on Facebook. I even phoned a couple of friends to find out.

The fourth night I wasn’t quite so bad. I actually concentrated on my homework better and I had more time to watch my TV programmes. And I spoke to my friends during the day at school. At the end of the first week, I reactivated my account, I think Facebook is fun and it’s useful for posting messages to friends and sharing photos. But I’ll try not to spend so much time on it in the future.

Question 3: Which of the following is NOT true about Facebook users in UK?

A. 45% of the country’s population used Facebook.

B. More than 25 millions of Brits use Facebook.

C. The amount of time British users spent on Facebook is highest.

D. Averagely, 6 hours per month are spent by British users.

Question 4: The highlight word “it” in the passage refers to_____.

A. worrying

B. facebook

C. a problem

D. meeting her real friend

Question 5: Facebook _______.

A. was non-profitable

B. was launched solely by Mark Zuckerberg.

C. follows each country’s regulation.

D. can be used by people of all ages.

Question 6: Which of the following is NOT the thing Bethan does as a Facebook addict?

A. be curious about Facebook activities when logging out.

B. have numerous online conversation at the same time.

C. use Facebook everyday

D. long to be offline nearly all the time.

Question 7: The word “applicable” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_____.

A. different

B. unsuitable

C. relevant

D. opposite

Question 8: What does Bethan conclude about Facebook?

A. The best use of Facebook is to share photos and messages.

B. Facebook is not as good as TV.

C. Users should spend more time on Facebook.

D. Facebook is great as long as not too much time is spent on.

Question 9: What happened to make Bethan decide to quit Facebook for a while?

A. She forgot an offline meeting.

B. She started to feel nervous.

C. She had too many offline friends.

D. She uploaded too many photos.

Question 10: When she decided to give up Facebook_____.

A. her friends didn’t care much

B. she found it too difficult to continue

C. she made progress after some days

D. she couldn’t focus on her homework

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 11:

A. physical B. mischievous

C. romantic D. suitable

Question 12:

A. contribute B. accompany

C. volunteer D. eliminate

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer of each following questions.

Question 13: “You stole my best cassette, Bob.” said Willy.

A. Willy accused Bob on stealing his best cassette.

B. Willy accused Bob for stealing his best cassette.

C. Willy accused Bob at stealing his best cassette.

D. Willy accused Bob of stealing his best cassette.

Question 14: If you don’t have his number, you can’t phone him.

A. You can phone him unless you have his number.

B. You can’t phone him unless you have his number.

C. You can phone him unless you don’t have his number.

D. You can’t phone him unless you don’t have his number.

Question 15: There are many things I want for Christmas. Some are clothes, toys and money.

A. Clothes, toys and money are all the things I want for Christmas.

B. If there are clothes, toys and money, I want them for Christmas.

C. Although I want many things for Christmas, I have clothes, toys and money.

D. There are many things I want for Christmas, including clothes, toys and money.

Question 16: Tom and May never help at home. The reason is because their mother never asks to.

A. Tom and May never help at home and their mother never asks to.

B. Tom and May never help at home because their mother never asks to.

C. Tom and May never help at home so their mother never asks to.

D. In order not to help at home by Tom and May, their mother never asks.

Question 17: Mr Pike is repairing the refrigerator in the kitchen at the moment.

A. The refrigerator is being repaired in the kitchen at the moment by Mr Pike.

B. The refrigerator is repaired in the kitchen by Mr Pike at the moment.

C. The refrigerator is being repaired in the kitchen by Mr Pike at the moment.

D. The refrigerator is being repaired at the moment by Mr Pike in the kitchen.

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from that of the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions:

Question 18:

A. return B. human

C. university D. future

Question 19:

A. looked B. stopped

C. closed D. watched

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions:

Question 20: A lot of rice were exported to France last year.

A. were B. to

C. A lot of D. exported

Question 21: If you think carefully before making your decision, you will avoid to get into trouble later.

A. to get B. later

C. carefully D. making

Question 22: The books writing by Mark Twain are very popular in the world.

A. very B. by

C. in D. writing

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following.

Question 23: The teacher gave some suggestions on what would come out for the examination.

A. symptoms

B. demonstrations

C. effects

D. hints

Question 24: When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the interviewer is saying or asking you.

A. relate on

B. be interested in

C. impress on

D. pay attention to

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 25: A chronic lack of sleep may make us irritable and reduce our motivation to work.

A. calm

B. uncomfortable

C. miserable

D. responsive

Question 26: He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at annual meeting in May.

A. encouragement

B. rudeness

C. measurement

D. politeness

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Most educational specialists believe that early schooling should provide children with an (27)_____ of their own abilities and the self-confidence to use their abilities. One approach recognised by many (28)______ as promoting these qualities is the Montessori method, first practised by Maria Montessori of Italy in the early 1900s. Nancy McCormick Rambusch is credited with (29) ______ the method in the United States, where today there are over 400 Montessori schools.

The method helps children learn for themselves by (30) ______ them with instructional materials and tasks that facilitate acts of discovery and manipulation. Through such exploration, children develop their sense of touch and learn (31)______ to do everyday tasks without adult assistance. Other benefits include improvement in language skills, and acquaintance with elements of science, music, and art.

Question 27:

A. awareness B. attitude

C. attention D. knowledge

Question 28:

A. researcher B. teacher

C. tutors D. experts

Question 29:

A. popular B. popularity

C. popularize D. popularizing

Question 30:

A. giving B. instructing

C. sending D. providing

Question 31:

A. how B. what

C. that D. which

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

It’s a sound you will probably never hear, a sickened tree sending out a distress signal. But a group of scientists has heard the cries, and they think some insects also hear the trees and are drawn to them like vulture to a dying animal. Researchers with the US Department of Agriculture’s Forest Service fastened sensors to the bark of drought-stricken trees clearly heard distress calls. According to one of the scientists, most parched trees transmit their plight in the 50-hertz to 50kilohertz range. (The unaided human ear can detect no more than 20 kilohertz). Red oak, maple, white pine, and birch all make slightly different sounds in the form of vibrations at the surface of the wood.

The scientists think that the vibrations are created when the water columns inside tubes that run along the length of the tree break, a result of too little water following through them.

These fractured columns send out distinctive vibration patterns. Because some insects communicate at ultrasonic frequencies, they may pick up the trees' vibration and attack the weakened trees. Researchers are now running tests with potted trees that have been deprived of water to see if the sound is what attracts the insects. “Water-stressed trees also smell differently from other trees, and they experience thermal changes, so insects could be responding to something other than sound”, one scientist said.

Question 32: All the following are mentioned as possible factors in drawing insects to weakened trees EXCEPT______.

A. thermal changes

B. sounds

C. changes in color

D. smells

Question 33: It can be inferred from the passage that research concerning the distress signals of trees______.

A. has been unproductive up to now

B. is no longer sponsored by the government

C. was conducted many years ago

D. is continuing

Question 34: Which of the following could be considered a cause of the distress signals of trees?

A. attacks by insects

B. experiments by scientists

C. torn roots

D. lack of water

Question 35: Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?

A. The effect of insects on trees.

B. The vibrations produced by insects.

C. The mission of the U.S Forest Service.

D. The sounds made by trees.

Đáp án & Thang điểm

1D	2B	3C	4B	5C
6D	7C	8D	9A	10C
11C	12C	13D	14B	15D
16B	17C	18A	19C	20A
21A	22D	23D	24D	25A
26D	27A	28D	29D	30D
31A	32C	33D	34D	35D

Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 2

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fitseach of thenumbered blanks from 1 to 5.

SHE STUDIES WHILE HE PLAYS: TRUE OF CHILDREN AND CHIMPS

Chimpanzees in the wild like to snack on termites, and youngsters learn to fish for them by pocking long sticks and other (1)……..tools into the mounds that large groups of termites build. Researchers found that (2)…………average female chimps in the Gombe National Park in Tanzania learnt how to do termite fishing at the age of 31 months, more than two years earlier than the males.

The females seem to learn by watching mothers. Researcher Dr. Elisabeth V. Lonsdorf, director of field conservation at the Lincoln Park Zoo in Chicago, said that it is (3)………….to find that, when a young male and female are near a mound, ‘she’s really focusing on termite fishing and he’s spinning himself round (4)………..circles’. Dr Landsdorf and colleagues are studying chimpanzees at the zoo with a new, specially created termite mound, filled with mustard (5)…….than termites.

Question 1:

A. relative B. similar

C. close D. connected

Question 2:

A. at B. by

C. on D. for

Question 3:

A. typical B. regular

C. ordinary D. frequent

Question 4:

A. in B. with

C. to D. through

Question 5:

A. other B. else

C. instead D. rather

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of thequestions from 6 to 12.

Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since man’s inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a single drop

Uncompromising as it is, the dessert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand its desiccating effects. No moist- skinned, water – loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found: the giants of the North America desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it holds more swift – footed, running, and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its populations are largely nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated. Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere in the world.

The secret of their adjustment lies in a combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun – baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees.

Question 6: What is the topic of the passage?

A. Life underground

B. Animal life in a desert environment

C. Desert plants

D. Man’s life in the desert

Question 7: The word “desiccating” means____.

A. humidifying

B. killing

C. drying

D. life threatening

Question 8: The phrase “those forms” refers to all of the following EXCEPT

A. water – loving animals

B. moist – skinned animals

C. many large animals

D. the bobcat

Question 9: The author states that one characteristic of animals that live in the desert is that they ____.

A. are less healthy than animals that live in different places

B. are smaller and fleeter than forest animals

C. can hunt in temperature of 150 degrees

D. live in an accommodating environment

Question 10: Which of the following generalizations are supported by the passage?

A. All living things adjust to their environments.

B. Healthy animals live longer lives.

C. Water is the basis of life.

D. Desert life is colorful.

Question 11: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to____.

A. large animals

B. the forest animals

C. water – loving

D. the desert population.

Question 12: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals EXCEPT

A. they dig home underground

B. they are noisy and aggressive

C. they are ready to hunt after sunset

D. they sleep during the day

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of thequestions from 13 to 20.

Baseball evolved from a number of different ball-and stick games (paddle ball, trap ball, one-old-cat, rounders, and town ball) originating in England. As early as the American Revolution, it was noted that troops played “baseball” in their free time. In 1845 Alexander Cartwright formalized the New York Knickerbockers’ version of the game: a diamond shaped infield, with bases ninety feet apart, three strikers – you’re – out, batter out on a caught ball, three outs per inning , a nine man team. “The New York Game” spread rapidly, replacing earlier localized forms. From its beginnings, baseball was seen as a way of satisfying the recreational needs of an increasingly urban – industrial society. At its inception it was it was played by and for gentlemen. A club might consist of 40 members. The president would appoint two captains who would choose teams from among the members. Games were played on Monday and Thursday afternoons, with the losers often providing a lavish evening’s entertainments for the winners.

During the 1850- 70 period the game was changing, however, with increasing commercialism (charging admission), under – the – table payments to exceptional to players, and gambling on the outcome of games. By 1868 it was said that a club would have their regular professional ten, an amateur first - nine, and their” muffins“ (the gently duffers who once ran the game) . Beginning with the first openly all – salaried team (Cincinnati’s Red Stocking Club) in 1869, the 1870- 1890 period saw the complete professionalization of baseball, including formation of the National Association of Professional baseball players in 1871. The National League of Professional Baseball Clubs was formed in 1876, run by business-minded invertors in joint-stock company clubs. The 1880s has been called Major League Baseball’s “Golden Age”. Profits soared, player’s salaries rose somewhat, a season of 84 games became one of 132, a weekly periodical “The sporting News” came into being, wooden stadiums with double-deck stands replaced open fields, and the standard refreshment became hot dogs, soda pop and peanuts. In 1900 the Western League based in the growing cities of the Mid-west proclaimed itself the American League.

Question 13: What is the passage mainly about?

A. the origin of baseball.

B. the influence of the “New York Game” on baseball

C. the commercialization of baseball.

D. the development of baseball in the nineteenth century

Question 14: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. the “New York “spread rapidly because it was better formalize.

B. hot dogs would not have become as popular as they did, without the professionalism and commercialism that develop in baseball.

C. the wealthy gentlemen who first played baseball, later needed to find another recreational opportunity if they did not want to mix with other or become a “muffin”.

D. business – minded investors were only interested in profits.

Question 15: The word “inception” in line 8 is closest in meaning to ____.

A. requirements

B. rules

C. insistence

D. beginning

Question 16: Which of the following is true of the way the game was played by wealthy gentlemen at its inception?

A. they didn’t play on weekend

B. the president would choose teams from among the members

C. a team might consist of 40 members

D. they might be called “duffers” if they didn’t make the first nine.

Question 17: According to the second paragraph, all of the following are true except____.

A. commercialism became more prosperous

B. the clubs are smaller

C. outstanding players got extra income

D. people gambled on the outcome of game

Question 18: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of the 1880s “Golden Age”?

A. profits soared

B. a weekly periodical news

C. wooden stadiums replaced open fields

D. the National Association of Professional Baseball Players was formed.

Question 19: The word “itself” in line 24 refers to____.

A. the Western League

B. growing cities

C. the Midwest

D. the American League

Question 20: The word “lavish “in line 11 is closest in meaning to____.

A. very generous

B. prolonged

C. Grand

D. extensive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answersheet to indicatethe word whose underlined part differs from theother three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 21:

A. requests B. calculates

C. questions D. attacks

Question 22:

A. civic B. service

C. fertile D. determine

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in theposition of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 23:

A. contribute B. dynamics

C. imagine D. devastate

Question 24:

A. habitat B. expansion

C. endanger D. agreement

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 25:

Tom said that he was trying (A) to carry out some (B) campaigns (C) to protect environment and will encourage others (D) to do so.

Question 26:

My elder (A) sisters, both of them (B) were doctors, said they were too busy (C) to pick (D) me up.

Question 27:

Tropical (A) rain forests are founded (B) in a (C) belt around the Equator of (D) the Earth.

Question 28:

It is very (A) difficult for (B) her to prevent (C) him for smoking (D) in her house.

Question 29:

If we cannot save (A) the forests in their original (B) state, we must save enough (C) to preserve them as living burgeon ecosystem (D).

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 30: The students in class were made _____ very hard

A. learning B. learn

C. to learn D. having learnt

Question 31: ____ umbrella should not be used during ______ thunderstorm.

A. a/a B. the/a

C. an/a D. no article/ a

Question 32: I have had a toothache for one week but I still keep _____ going to the dentist.

A. put on B. taking off

C. take on D. putting off

Question 33: She hasn’t had a _____ week. She seems to have done nothing at all.

A. productive B. enthusiastic

C. economic D. extensive

Question 34: The police have not found the robbers yet and the bank robbery is still under ____

A. provision

B. investigation

C. explanation

D. division

Question 35:

A. the verge

B. a risk

C. a verge

D. stake

Question 36: The university ____ by private funds as well as by tuition income and grants.

A. supports

B. is supported

C. is supporting

D. has supported

Question 37: She always complained ___ her parents ___ how small her room was or how few clothes she had.

A. with/ for

B. with/about

C. to/ about

D. to/ for

Question 38: A native speaker of Spanish, for example, will __ to learn than a native speaker of Chinese

A. find Portuguese much easier

B. find that Portuguese is much easy

C. find Portuguese much easy

D. find Portuguese is much easier

Question 39: I couldn’t help ____ when I saw your face after making up.

A. to laugh.

B. for laughing

C. laughing

D. laughed

Question 40: When she _____ at the new dress for half part an hour, she asked how much it

A. have looked/cost

B. had looked/cost

C. has been looking/costed

D. looked/costs

Đáp án & Thang điểm

1B	2C	3A	4A	5D
6B	7C	8C	9B	10A
11D	12B	13D	14A	15D
16A	17C	18D	19A	20A
21C	22C	23D	24A	25C
26B	27B	28D	29D	30C
31C	32D	33A	34B	35A
36B	37C	38A	39C	40B

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