Đề thi học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 7 Phòng GD&ĐT Kim Bảng (Hà Nam) năm 2023-2024
Bài viết Đề thi học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 7 Phòng GD&ĐT Kim Bảng, tỉnh Hà Nam năm 2023-2024 đề xuất cho kì thi HSG Tiếng Anh 7 các trường THCS tỉnh Hà Nam. Mời các bạn đón đọc:
Đề thi học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 7 Phòng GD&ĐT Kim Bảng (Hà Nam) năm 2023-2024
Chỉ từ 150k mua trọn bộ đề thi Học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 7 theo cấu trúc mới bản word có lời giải chi tiết, dễ dàng chỉnh sửa:
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PHÒNG GDĐT HUYỆN KIM BẢNG
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
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KIỂM TRA CHẤT LƯỢNG HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2023-2024 Môn: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 7 (Thời gian làm bài 150 phút) (Đề kiểm tra gồm 08 trang, học sinh làm ngay vào bộ đề này) |
SECTION A. LISTENING (25 points)
Part I. Listen and tick the box. (5,0points)
Bài nghe:
1. What must Michael paint first?
2. What must Michael wear?
3. What can Michael eat?
4. Where is the paint that Michael needs?
5. What is the matter with Michael now?
Part II. May has gone camping and has left all these things at home. Where are they? Listen and write letters in the boxes. (10 points)
Bài nghe:
|
0. soap 6. brush 7. umbrella 8. torch 9. dairy 10. chocolate |
0. G 6. ____________ 7. ____________ 8. ____________ 9. ____________ 10. ____________ |
A. balcony B. table C. telephone D. mirror E. cooker F. fridge G. shower H. bath |
Part III. You will hear a woman asking about a tour casstle. Listen and complete questions 11-15. You will hear the conversation twice. (10 points)
Bài nghe:
CASTTLE TOUR
- Time of the tour: 10 a.m
- Tour takes: (16) ____________ minutes
- Price of a family ticket: (17) £ ____________
- Ticket includes: (18) soft drink or ____________
- Name of gardens: (19) ____________
- What to see in gardens: (20) 800-year-old ____________
SECTION B. PHONETICS (10 points)
Part I. Choose the word in each group that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest. (5 points)
1. A. climate B. comic C. hike D. website
2. A. worked B. laughed C. hoped D. naked
3. A. cover B. category C. ancient D. decorate
4. A. erupt B. humor C. UFO D. communicate
5. A. Buddhism B. bomb C. viable D. bulb
Part II. Find the word A,B,C or D which has different stress pattern in each line (5 points)
1. A. comprise B. depend C. design D. novel
2. A. tropical B. collection C. tendency D. charity
3. A. friendliness B. occasion C. pagoda D. deposit
4. A. importing B. specific C. impolite D. important
5. A. federation B. unpolluted C. disappearing D. profitable
SECTION C. LEXICO & GRAMMAR ( 80 points)
Part I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to complete these sentences. (20 points)
1. In Titanic, it ___________ Leonardo DiCaprio as Jack Dawson, a poor artist.
A. directs
B. shows
C. acts
D. stars
2. A ___________ is a film that shows real life events or stories.
A. action
B. documentary
C. thriller
D. comedy
3. I have never felt as ___________ as I did when I watched that horror film.
A. terrify
B. terrifying
C. terrified
D. terrible
4. I ___________ marbles when I was young, but now I don’t.
A. play
B. used to play
C. have played
D. didn’t use to play
5. Cyclists and motorists have to wear a ___________ when they ride a motorbike.
A. hard hat
B. cap
C. mask
D. helmet
6. Hurry up or we can’t ___________ the last bus home.
A. catch
B. follow
C. go
D. keep
7. We must ___________ the amount of water our family uses every day.
A. lessen
B. narrow
C. lower
D. reduce
8. My brother ___________ playing golf now.
A. like
B. likes
C. is liking
D. is likes
9. This is Linda’s hat, and those shoes are ___________.
A. hers
B. her
C. our
D. their
10. The city is facing serious ___________ problems.
A. pollution
B. polluted
C. pollute
D. pollutant
11. My parents gave ___________ a new digital camera. I love ___________ so much.
A. me/ it
B. you / them
C. them / it
D. it / them
12. When ___________ people live in a small place, life can be very difficult.
A. too much
B. too many
C. a few
D. few
13. Living in the country is healthier than that in the city because in the countryside, there is ___________ traffic.
A. more
B. higher
C. less
D. fewer
14. MrsLien went to ___________ school to meet her daughter’s teacher.
A. an
B. the
C. a
D. X
15. ___________ apple a day keeps ___________ doctor away.
A. 0/A
B. The / a
C. An/0
D. An / the
16. It’s really difficult to ___________ a bicycle up the hill.
A. fly
B. drive
C. pedal
D. sail
17. ___________ the film was gripping, Tom slept from beginning to end.
A. Although
B. Despite
C. However
D. Therefore
18. My uncle started working for this non-profit ___________ five years ago.
A. organisations
B. organisation
C. organise
D. organizer
19. My hobbies aren’t ___________ hers.
A. similar
B. the same
C. different than
D. the same as
20. Home robots can do many things ___________ repairing things or cooking meals.
A. for
B. such
C. like
D. with
Part II. Supply the correct form or tense of the verbs in the parentheses ( 20 points)
1. Look! I The plane is flying to the airport. It (land) ___________.
2. If he (try) ___________ his best, he would not fail the exam.
3. We (learn) ___________ in this school for 2 years.
4. Yesterday, when the villgers (have) ___________ a party, a dragon suddenly appeared.
5. My brother used to (work) ___________ in the city but now he doesn’t.
6. Her house is not bright. It needs (repaint) ___________.
7. The doctor asked him to stop (smoke) ___________ because it is harmful for his health.
8. John, along with ten friends, (be) ___________ planning a party.
9. I’ll be on holiday this time next week. I (lie) ___________ on a beautiful beach.
10. It’s two years since I last (hear) ___________ from her.
Part III. There mistake in the four underlined part of each sentence underline it then correct it (20 points)
1. You should take a taxi although it is raining hard.
A B C D
2. Alexandre G.Bell, a Scotsman invent the telephone in 1876.
A B C D
3. It is difficult for students answer all of the questions in fifteen minutes.
A B C D
4. She went out the room but saying any thing.
A B C D
5. Lots of information are wrong, so we don’t use any more.
A B C D
6. She is disappointing to watch the film, it is very boring.
A B C D
7. Either Nam or his father know how to connect the printer.
A B C D
8. Would you like help me solve these mathematics problems? I can hardly understand how to do them.
A B C. D
9. It is greatly to be with you on such a lovely day.
A B C D
10. I think I prefer country life more than city life.
A B C D
Part IV. Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the sentences (20 points)
1. It’s very ___________ to live in damp room. (HEALTH)
2. Walking is a fun, easy and ___________ activity. (EXPENSIVE)
3. A balanced diet alone is not enough for a healthy ___________.(LIFE)
4. That woman is very pleasant, but her younger sister is a little ___________.(FRIEND)
5. Jane likes to wear ___________ clothes. (COLOUR)
6. Diana is a ___________. She sells flowers at a shop in New York. (FLOWER)
7. The students of class 7A enjoy ___________ activities after school hours. (DIFFER)
8. Some students are following the ___________ to the video room. (LIBRARY)
9. The post arrives ___________ at eight in the morning. (REGULAR)
10. Do your classes start ___________ or later? (EARLY)
SECTION D. READING (40 points)
Part I. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word . (2.0 points)
Yesterday, Carlos went (1) ___________ La Tomatina. The festival is held on the last Wednesday of August every year in Bũnol, Spain. (2) ___________ were thousands of people there. In the morning, many people tried to (3) ___________ up the pole to get the ham. At 11 a.m., they (4) ___________ a jet from the water cannons and the chaos began. Bags of tomatoes from trucks were (5) ___________ to the crowds, and they began throwing tomatoes at one another. They all had to wear goggles to (6) ___________ their eyes.
After one hour, they saw another jet and stopped (7) ___________. The whole town square (8) ___________ red with rivers of tomato juice. Finally, they tried tomato Paella, a (9) ___________ Spanish rice dish. Together with local people and tourists, they enjoyed the (10) ___________ food and drink.
Part II. Circle the correct answer A, B, C or D that best fits each of the blanks (2.0 points)
Sandwiches are common in many countries. But (1) ___________ did this strange name come from? The Earl of Sandwich (1718-1792) was an Englishman. He liked (2) ___________ cards. One night he played for hours and got very hungry. (3) ___________ he didn’t want to stop his card game. He asked for some roast meat (4) ___________ two pieces of bread. (People bake roast meat in the oven or a stove). He ate the food (5) ___________ he played cards. People gave his name (6) ___________ this new kind of food.
Pizza is (7) ___________ international food. A baker probably (8) ___________ the pizza in Naples, Italy. It was about the same time (9) ___________ the first sandwich. “Pizza” means “pie” in Italian. People (10) ___________ the name “pizza pie” for long time ago. Now it is just “pizza”.
1. A. what B. when C. where D. how
2. A. play B. played C. plays D. playing
3. A. So B. Moreover C. But D. Because
4. A. for B. between C. on D. among
5. A. while B. until C. after D. before
6. A. to B. for C. from D. with
7. A. other B. another C. others D. the other
8. A. did B. discovered C. invented D. found
9. A. than B. as C. like D. from
10. A. was used B. have used C. use D. used
SECTION E. WRITING (45 points)
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. ( 20 points)
1. He used to play tennis better than he does now.
→ He doesn’t play......................................................................................................................
2. He didn’t remember anything about it, and I didn’t, either.
→ He forgot......................................................................................................................
3. Although she performed well, she didn’t receive good comments from critics.
→ Despite her......................................................................................................................
4. How much is a bowl of beef noodle soup?
→ What is the.................................................................................................................... ?
5. Critics found his performance as King Lear disappointing. (AT)
→ Critics were......................................................................................................................
6. The distance between Ha Nam and Hanoi is about 80 km.
→ It’s......................................................................................................................
7. This school bag is the same as my school bag at home.
→ This school bag is not......................................................................................................................
8. Listening to music at home is more interesting than going to the concert.
→ I prefer......................................................................................................................
9. On the 7th May every year, thousands of people visit Dien Bien Phu in Dien Bien Province.
→ Dien Bien Phu......................................................................................................................
10. With luck, she will win the cookery competition.
→ If......................................................................................................................
Part II. Use the given words to write the second sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do not change the form of the given words. (10 points)
1. Lan often visits Ha Long Bay. (PAY)
→......................................................................................................................
2. They spent a week finishing their project. (TO)
→......................................................................................................................
3. The weather is terrible. (WHAT)
→......................................................................................................................
4. She enjoys cooking very much. (OF)
→......................................................................................................................
5. My school does not take part in the community activities very often, neither does his school. (NOR)
→......................................................................................................................
Part III. Write a paragraph (about 100-120 words) about the trafic problems in a big city. (15 points)
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THE END
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Xem thêm đề thi học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh lớp 7 hay khác:
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