Đề thi học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 7 Phòng GD&ĐT Quốc Oai (Hà Nội) năm 2023-2024

Bài viết Đề thi học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 7 Phòng GD&ĐT Quốc Oai, tỉnh Hà Nội năm 2023-2024 đề xuất cho kì thi HSG Tiếng Anh 7 các trường THCS tỉnh Hà Nội. Mời các bạn đón đọc:

Đề thi học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 7 Phòng GD&ĐT Quốc Oai (Hà Nội) năm 2023-2024

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PHÒNG GD&ĐT QUỐC OAI

 

(Đề gồm 08 trang)

GIAO LƯU OLYMPIC TIẾNG ANH 7

Năm học: 2023-2024

Thời gian: 120 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)

PART I: LISTENING (2.0 POINTS)

A. You will listen to a tour guide talking about a traditional dish. For each question, decide whether the following statements are True or False. Write T if the statement is TRUE, F if it is FALSE. (1.0 point)

Bài nghe:

1. Bamboo worms is a famous dish in Ha Giang.

2. The best time to eat it is between September and October because the worms are crunchy.

3. The chef adds some sugar to the worms.

4. People can fry worms with herbs or steam them.

5. The worms taste like corn or butter.

B. You will listen to a conversation. For each question, circle the correct option. (1.0 point)

Bài nghe:

6. What can cause water pollution on the beach?

A. natural gas

B. oil

C. coal

D. smoke

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7. How can natural gas make it rain more?

A. by polluting the ocean

B. it makes the planet colder

C. it blows through the city

D. by warming the planet

8. What causes air pollution that can blow through the city and hurt someone’s throat?

A. burning coal

B. solar power

C. oil spill

D. renewable energy

9. Which renewable energy sources pollute less than non-renewable energy sources?

A. coal power, solar power, hydropower

B. solar power, oil power, hydropower

C. wind power, oil power, solar power

D. wind power, solar power, hydropower

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10. What is the topic of the conversation?

A. oil, natural gas, and coal are renewable energy sources

B. natural gas causes the planet to warm

C. oil, natural gas, and coal pollute the community

D. oil pollution can be found on the beach

PART II: PHONETICS (2.0 POINTS)

Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. (1.0 point)

11. A. looked                  B. watched              C. carried                    D. stopped

12. A. study                   B. success              C. surprise                   D. sugar

13. A. gramophone              B. perform              C. minority                   D. import

14. A. defeat                  B. heat                 C. spread                     D. seat

15. A. children                B. church               C. headache                   D. beach

Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. (1.0 point)

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16. A. general                 B. opinion                  C. abroad                     D. surprise

17. A. comfort                 B. nation                   C. apply                      D. moment

18. A. person                  B. enough                   C. picture                    D. people

19. A. weather                 B. lava                     C. middle                     D. include

20. A. culture                 B. parade                   C. weather                    D. cannon

PART III: VOCABULARY – GRAMMAR (7.0 POINTS)

Choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the blank spaces provided. (3.0 points)

21. Our ___________ resources are limited so we should recycle all used things.

A. nature

B. natural

C. naturing

D. naturally

22. I take part ___________ most youth activities of my school.

A. in

B. of

C. on

D. at

23. I have been to America ___________ than 10 times. I am planning to go there one more time next month.

A. more

B. few

C. less

D. more than

24. John shouldn’t run so fast, and ___________.

A. either should we

B. we should either

C. neither should we

D. neither we should

25. We can’t go along here because the road ___________.

A. is repairing

B. is repaired

C. is being repaired

D. repairs

26. “How did that window ___________?” – “I don’t know.”

A. get broken

B. broke

C. got broken

D. broken

27. Astronauts ___________ in their spaceship, but they frequently work outside now.

A. were used to stay

B. used to stay

C. were staying

D. had used to stay

28. I tried my ___________ not to laugh, but I couldn’t.

A. good

B. well

C. best

D. better

29. The Smiths never go out in the evening, ___________?

A. do they

B. don’t they

C. doesn’t he

D. does he

30. No sooner had we started the game ___________ it began to rain.

A. than

B. then

C. that

D. and

31. The last time I saw Khang, he looked very relaxed. He explained that he’d been on holiday the ___________ week.

A. earlier

B. following

C. next

D. previous

32. They’ve told you time and time ___________ not to go out at night.

A. to

B. over

C. again

D. before

33. With a solar PV system, solar panels ___________ sunlight right into electricity.

A. create

B. generate

C. provide

D. convert

34. Mumbai is the land of some of the world’s richest people. ___________, it is also home to the world’s poorest.

A. Although

B. Therefore

C. However

D. Despite

35. Whenever I feel ___________, I watch a comedy that makes me laugh and feel better.

A. depressed

B. amused

C. exhausted

D. thrilled

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions. (0.4 point)

36. We had a discussion in class today about requiring students to wear school uniforms.

A. ban

B. arrangement

C. reduction

D. talk

37. They need to cut back on eating a lot of salt and sugary foods. They’re not food for their health.

A. reduce

B. begin

C. speed up

D. carry out

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions. (0.4 point)

38. A small fish needs camouflage to hide itself so that its enemies cannot find it.

A. cover

B. beautify

C. show

D. locate

39. We must not let small children play in the kitchen. It is a dangerous place.

A. handy

B. suitable

C. central

D. safe

Give the correct form of the words in each blank to complete the sentences. (1.6 points)

40. There are a lot of ___________ in the competition. (COMPETE)

41. Tet Holiday is one of the most important ___________ for Vietnamese people. (CELEBRATE)

42. Mr. Jay runs his business very ___________. (SUCCEED)

43. My uncle often spends his free time doing volunteer work at a local ___________. (ORPHAN)

44. Relax for some minutes and you’ll feel more ___________. (COMFORT)

45. Young children are expected to show ___________ to their parents. (OBEY)

46. Children should avoid ___________ foods such as hamburgers and chips. (HEALTH)

47. It’s ___________ that he won the first prize in the competition. (SURPRISE)

Give the correct form or tense of the verbs in each blank to complete the sentences. (1.6 points)

48. If you call her at six, she (probably / practice) ___________ the piano.

49. You (not / forget) ___________ to lock up the house before you go out, will you?

50. Who (look) ___________ after the children when you are away?

51. She (go) ___________ to Australia in 2023 and she liked it very much.

52. Angelina (be) ___________ an English teacher since she was 21.

53. Each of the following sentences (have) ___________ a mistake. Find and correct it.

54. I’d prefer (have) ___________ hoverboard, so that I can fly to school.

55. Since 1990, the population of the city (grow) ___________ by 110,000 people.

PART IV: READING (5.0 PTS)

Read the text below and decide which answers A, B, C or D best fits each space. (2.0 points)

The Carnival in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil is the biggest carnival in the world which (56) ___________ for five days. Every year in the month of February, the festivities start. Hundreds of people are (57) ___________ on the streets enjoying the street bands, singers and orchestras. The main (58) ___________ of the carnival is the Samba Parade (59) ___________ which 200 schools participate. The schools have elaborate costumes, floats and dancing styles. It is an (60) ___________ experience!

Come August and it’s (61) ___________ to have fun in Bunol, Spain. La Tomatina – a fun filled battle – begins on the last Wednesday of August. Thousands of people come from all over the world to participate in a grand tomato fight. Puzzled! (62) ___________ does it happen? To have fun. Actually, a week-long festival goes on before the tomato fight. The festival has dancing, music, parades, fireworks and food. However, the (63) ___________ have to take a few precautions. They are asked to squish the tomatoes (64) ___________ throwing so that it does not hurt the other people. They are also (65) ___________ to wear safety gloves and goggles.

56. A. gets                B. lasts                  C. makes                         D. longs

57. A. down                B. along                  C. into                          D. out

58. A. theme               B. notice                 C. highlight                     D. guide

59. A. in                  B. on                     C. at                            D. from

60. A. amazing             B. unpleasant             C. obvious                       D. actual

61. A. tradition           B. mean                   C. time                          D. celebration

62. A. Where               B. Why                    C. When                          D. How

63. A. participants        B. viewers                C. competitors                   D. partners

64. A. during              B. after                  C. before                        D. by

65. A. suggested           B. advised                C. let                           D. allowed

Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (2.0 points)

            The search (66) ___________ alternative sources of energy have led in various directions. Many communities are burning garbage (67) ___________ other biological waste products to produce electricity. Converting waste products to gases, oil (68) ___________ also an efficient way to dispose of waste.

Experimental work is being (69) ___________ to derive synthetic fuels from coal, oil, shale and coal tars. However, that process (70) ___________ proved to be expensive. Other (71) ___________ that are underway to harness power with giant windmills are also being tested.

Some experts expect utility companies to receive hydroelectric power (72) ___________ from streams and rivers. Fifty years ago, hydroelectric power provided one third of the electricity (73) ___________ in the United States, but today it supplies only four percent. The oceans are other (74) ___________ sources of energy. Scientists are studying ways to convert the energy of ocean currents, tides and waves (75) ___________ electricity. Experiments are also underway to make use of temperature differences in ocean water to produce energy.

Read the following passage and choose the option A, B, C or D that best answers the questions. (1.0 points)

TWO ENGLISHES

American English is the name given to the form of the language used by the people of the United States (Note that American English does not include Canadian English. The two nations use very similar pronunciation, but in other respects, Canadian English is more like British English.) British English, or Commonwealth English, is the variety used in the United Kingdom and its former colonies, including much of Africa, the Indian subcontinent, Australia, New Zealand, and parts of Southeast Asia. While American and British English are for the most part reciprocally intelligible, the differences are numerous enough to cause awkward misunderstandings and the occasional breakdown of communication.

Some of the most obvious differences are in vocabulary. Many of these developed between the mid-19th and the mid-20th centuries. This was a period during which a variety of new concepts arose requiring new words.

For example, a large number of words connected with automobiles and other modern vehicles are different in the two forms of English. The British use the Celsius temperature scale whereas Americans are more used to Fahrenheit. An American “trunk” is a British “boot.” In the U.S, they put “gas” in their cars, but in the UK, it's “petrol.” Americans say “subway” while the British say “underground” or “tube”.

While many of these differences are well-known in both countries, there is an inequality in the comprehensibility of American terms for the British, compared with that of British terms for Americans. The use of many British words, such as “semi” (semi-detached house) or “busk” (to play music in public in the hope of getting donations from passers-by) is likely to completely baffle an American. The global popularity of American movies and television shows, on the other hand, means that few Americanisms are unknown to British English speakers.

76. Which of the following best describes the reading passage?

A. An explanation of how American English and British English are often confused

B. A discussion of differences between American English and British English

C. An argument for choosing British English over American English

D. A listing of varieties of English and where they are spoken

77. According to the reading, Canadian English and American English are most alike in ___________.

A. grammar

B. spelling

C. pronunciation

D. meaning

78. Which of the sentences below is NOT mentioned in the second paragraph?

A. New English words appeared.

B. The British used °C, whereas Americans are more used to °F.

C. There are two equivalent words in British English for “subway” in American English.

D. In the US, people don’t use cars on petrol.

79. According to the passage, the differences sometimes cause ___________.

A. awkward customers

B. communicative disruptions

C. new vocabulary items

D. vacation breakdowns

80. The word “baffle” in the passage mostly means ___________.

A. enhance

B. confuse

C. worsen

D. dismiss

PART V: WRITING (5.0 PTS)

Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given at the beginning of each sentence. (1.0 pt)

81. It was such an interesting film that we watched it several times.

→ The film......................................................................................................................

82. Parents ought to send their children to school.

→ Children......................................................................................................................

83. People think that doing morning exercise is good for health.

→ It is......................................................................................................................

84. We started living here 15 years ago.

→ We have......................................................................................................................

85. Please don’t interrupt me while I’m speaking.

→ I’d rather......................................................................................................................

Use the words given to make meaningful sentences. (1.0 pt)

86. The date / meeting / will / have to / change / tomorrow.

→......................................................................................................................

87. After / many / experiments / finally / first / successful / flight / make / by / Wright Brothers.

→......................................................................................................................

88. My uncle / move / Ho Chi Minh City / 1987 / and / live / there / then.

→......................................................................................................................

89. Unless / I / have / quiet room / I / not / able / do / work.

→......................................................................................................................

90. Compost / make / from / household and garden waste.

→......................................................................................................................

In about 150-170 words, write a paragraph about your favorite TV program by answering the following questions:

- Do you like watching TV?

- What program do you like?

- What time and on what channel is your favorite program broadcast?

- How many hours do you spend on watching your favorite program?

- Can you describe your favorite program?

- Why do you like that program?

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THE END

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