Đề thi HSG Tiếng Anh 9 trường THCS Lê Hữu Lập (Thanh Hóa) năm 2025-2026
Bài viết Đề thi học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 9 trường THCS Lê Hữu Lập, tỉnh Thanh Hóa năm 2025-2026 đề xuất cho kì thi HSG Tiếng Anh 9 các trường THPT tỉnh Thanh Hóa. Mời các bạn đón đọc:
Đề thi HSG Tiếng Anh 9 trường THCS Lê Hữu Lập (Thanh Hóa) năm 2025-2026
Chỉ từ 150k mua trọn bộ Đề thi học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 9 bản word có lời giải chi tiết, dễ dàng chỉnh sửa:
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ĐỀ THI KHẢO SÁT ĐỘI TUYỂN DỰ THI CẤP TỈNH NĂM HỌC 2025 - 2026 Môn thi: Tiếng Anh Ngày thi: 28/10/2025 Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) |
PART A: LISTENING (20.0 POINTS)
I. You will hear the man phoning to find out about some children’s engineering workshops. Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. (10.0 points)
Bài nghe:
Children’s Engineering Workshops
Tiny Engineers (ages 4-5)
Activities
• Create a (1) ____________ for an egg so they can drop it from a height without breaking it.
• Take part in a competition to build the tallest (2) ____________.
• Make a car powered by a (3) ____________.
Junior Engineers (ages 6-8)
Activities
• Build model cars, trucks and (4) ____________ and learn how to program them so they can move.
• Take part in a competition to build the longest (5) ____________ using card and wood.
• Create a short movie or film with special animation (6) ____________.
• Build, (7) ____________ and program a humanoid robot.
Cost for a five-week block: £50
Held on (8) ____________ from 10 am to 11 am.
Location
Building 10A, (9) ____________ Industrial Estate, Grasford
Plenty of (10) ____________ is available.
Part 2: You will hear a radio interview with a student called Leanne Wilson, who is talking about her first weeks at university. Listen carefully and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) for each of the following questions. (5.0 points)
Bài nghe:
11. What advice did Leanne give to make friends in the first few weeks?
A. Stay with your friends
B. Avoid those who aren't friendly
C. Join as many clubs as possible
D. Don't meet a lot of people at the same time
12. What discouraged Leanne from joining college clubs?
A. She thought it was not worth doing.
B. She believed she could do it some other time in the first term.
C. She wanted to focus on academic study first.
D. She needed time to calm her down.
13. Which of the following is NOT what Leanne did to save up?
A. Living with her family
B. Sharing books
C. Buying used goods
D. Going to work
14. Why should college students attend lectures regularly according to Leanne?
A. To note down everything in the lectures
B. To better concentrate on their study
C. To meet their friends
D. To be aware of the focus for their further reading
15. Which part of student life stressed her out most?
A. Structuring her day effectively
B. Doing housework
C. Helping her mom on holidays
D. Dealing with schoolwork
III. You will hear a conversation between a boy, Tom, and his sister, Clare, about school, and then decide whether each of the following statements is True (T) or False (F). (5.0 points)
Bài nghe:
16. Clare thinks their father will be delighted to hear Tom’s news.
17. Tom believes he can manage both swimming and school work.
18. Tom’s teacher thinks Tom is clever.
19. Clare thinks it is a good idea to take a friend’s advice.
20. Tom finally realises he will need his father’s agreement to his plans.
PART B: PHONETICS (5.0 POINTS)
I. Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. (3.0 points)
21.
A. adventure
B. future
C. mature
D. figure
22.
A. concentrated
B. learned
C. photographed
D. naked
23.
A. luxury
B. exhaust
C. exactly
D. anxiety
II. Choose the word which is stressed differently from the other three. (2pts)
24.
A. intelligent
B. population
C. opportunity
D. economics
25.
A. advisable
B. admirable
C. reliable
D. desirable
PART C. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (25.0 POINTS)
I. Choose the best answer A, B, C, or D to complete the sentence in each of the following questions. (10.0 points)
26. It is estimated that ____________ 10% of the population goes to university.
A. a
B. some
C. the
D. any
27. Jane and Tom are talking about the school play.
- Jane: "I heard you have a part in the school play tonight."
- Tom: "____________"
A. Yes, and I'm on pins and needles
B. Yes, and I'm in deep water
C. Yes, and I'm black and blue
D. Yes, and I'm at my wits' end
28. I agree with most of what you said, but I can't ____________ your idea of letting children leave school at the age of 14.
A. go along with
B. put up with
C. keep up with
D. come up with
29. It sounds like you let people take advantage of you. ____________, you need to learn to be more assertive.
A. Otherwise
B. If only
C. What if
D. If so
30. ____________ had booked in advance were allowed in.
A. Only who
B. Only those who
C. Only why were
D. Only were who
31. I think my essay is good but could you ____________ over it and point out any errors.
A. shed any light
B. cloud your judgement
C. set your mind
D. cast your eye
32. Don’t worry – it’s ____________ natural to feel annoyed when people let you down.
A. perfectly
B. utterly
C. fully
D. highly
33. Overseas visitors traveling around the country are advised to carry their passports with them ____________.
A. all times
B. for all time
C. of all time
D. at all times
34. ____________ about the job offer, I knew that relocating to Paris would be an adjustment.
A. Delighted though I was
B. As I was delighted
C. However delighted was I
D. Were I delighted
35. ____________ through a telescope, Venus appears to go through changes in size and shape.
A. It has seen
B. It is seen
C. When seen
D. Seeing
II. Give the correct tense/form of the verb in brackets to complete the sentence in each of the following questions. (5.0 points)
36. The woman insisted that the lost child (take) ____________ to the store's information desk so his parents could be paged.
37. Though (write) ____________ for children, “Alice in the Wonderland” appeals to many adult readers, too.
38. ‘Didn’t you know that Olivia works as a curator?’ ‘To be perfectly honest, she (tell) ____________ me, but I probably forgot.’
39. (Not/save) ____________ up enough money, Jane decided to turn down her friends’ suggestion to go on holiday.
40. At the end of next month, Sarah (work) ____________ in government for exactly 40 years.
III. Give the correct form of the given word to complete each of the following sentences. (5.0 points)
41. Health care was ____________ in ancient time. There was no hospital or doctor then. (EXIST)
42. ____________ some members' objections, I think we must go ahead with the plan. (STAND)
43. Church is the site of a number of ____________ manifestations. (NATURE)
44. It usually takes you a lot of time to ____________ when you arrive in a tropical country. (CLIMATE)
45. Low income and little administrative support make teachers ____________ with their profession. (HEART)
IV. The passage below contains 5 mistakes (from 46 to 50). Recognise the mistakes and write their correct forms in your answer sheet. (5 pts)
A feminist is a person, usually a woman, who believes that women should be regarded as equal to men. She, or he, deplores discrimination against women in the home, place of work or anywhere, and her principal enemy is the male chauvinist, who believes that men are naturally super. Tired of being referred to as “the weaker sex”, women are becoming more and more militant and are winning the age-old battle of the sexes. They are sick to death of sexy jokes which poke fun at women. They are no longer content to be regarded as second-class citizens in terms of economical, political and social status. They criticize beauty contests and the use of glamorous female models in advertisements which they describe as the exploitation of female beauty, since women in these situations were represented as mere sex objects. We are no longer in the male-dominated societies of the past. Let us hope, moreover, that the revolution stops before we have a boring world in which sex doesn’t make much difference. We already have unisex hairdressers and fashions. What next?
SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
I. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. (10pts)
NEIGHBORS INFLUENCE BUYING DECISIONS
However objective we believe ourselves to be, most of us do not judge a product solely on its merits, considering quality, value and style before making a decision. (51) ____________, we are easily influenced by the people around us.
There is nothing (52) ____________ with this. It is probably a smarter way to make decisions than (53) ____________ on only our own opinions. But it does make life hard for companies. They have long understood that groups of friends and relatives tend to buy the same products, but understanding the reasons has been tricky. It is because they are so similar with (54) ____________ to how much money they make and what television ads they watch that they independently (55) ____________ at the same decision? Or do they copy one another, perhaps (56) ____________ envy or perhaps because they have shared information about the products?
Research in Finland recently found overwhelming evidence that neighbours have a big influence on buying decisions. When one of a person’s ten nearest neighbours bought a car, the chances that that person would buy a car of the same brand during the next week and a half (57) ____________ by 86 per cent. The researchers argued that it was not just a (58) ____________ of envy. Used cars seemed to attract neighbours even more than new cars. This suggested that people were not trying to (59) ____________ up with their neighbours, they were keen to learn from them. Since used cars are less reliable, a recommendation of one can (60) ____________ influence a buying decision.
51.
A. What’s more
B. Instead
C. Unlike
D. In place
52.
A. wrong
B. silly
C. bad
D. daft
53.
A. basing
B. trusting
C. supposing
D. relying
54.
A. connection
B. regard
C. relation
D. concern
55.
A. reach
B. come
C. arrive
D. get
56.
A. for
B. as to
C. out of
D. about
57.
A. boosted
B. rose
C. enlarged
D. lifted
58.
A. thing
B. point
C. matter
D. fact
59.
A. keep
B. stay
C. hold
D. follow
60.
A. fiercely
B. strongly
C. firmly
D. intensely
II. Supply the most suitable word for each blank. (10pts)
Polar bears aren’t the only beloved Arctic animal threatened by climate change. Scientists believe reindeer are (61) ____________ risk as a warming world makes their main winter food source disappear. But reindeer on one Alaskan island are surprising researchers. Historically, the reindeer population on St. Paul island ate lichen, a small type of plant or fungus that grows on (62) ____________ in areas with cold weather. However, climate change has made it harder for lichen to grow on this island, and the reindeer ate the lichen (63) ____________ than it could grow back. Researchers thought that the reindeer population would starve without access to lichen, (64) ____________ these reindeer have found another way to survive.Reindeer are not (65) ____________ to Alaska, and they were introduced to rural villages around the state in the late 1800s, in order to provide an (66) ____________ food source for residents of the villages. In communities like St. Paul, where grocery prices are astronomical, residents depend on reindeer to feed (67) ____________ families. And to make it through winter, the reindeer need something as well. Fortunately, after the reindeer on this island depleted the lichen supply, they went underground. They began digging and discovered new sources of food: roots and grass shoots. Plants (68) ____________ these grow more quickly than lichen in the warmer, wetter conditions introduced by climate change, and the reindeer’s ability to (69) ____________ to their new diet is a good sign for the survival of the species. However, reindeer researchers are not so optimistic. They warn that global reindeer populations are still in danger, as climate change warms and alters their (70) ____________,as are other animals that depend on colder conditions to survive.
III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to the questions below.(10 pts)
Ocean water plays an indispensable role in supporting life. The great ocean basins hold about 300 million cubic miles of water. From this vast amount, about 80,000 cubic miles of water are sucked into the atmosphere each year by evaporation and returned by precipitation and drainage to the ocean. More than 24,000 cubic miles of rain descend annually upon the continents. This vast amount is required to replenish the lakes and streams, springs and water tables on which all flora and fauna are dependent. Thus, the hydrosphere permits organic existence.
The hydrosphere has strange characteristics because water has properties unlike those of any other liquid. One anomaly is that water upon freezing expands by about 9 percent, whereas most liquids contract on cooling. For this reason, ice floats on water bodies instead of sinking to the bottom. If the ice sank, the hydrosphere would soon be frozen solidly, except for a thin layer of surface melt water during the summer season. Thus, all aquatic life would be destroyed and the interchange of warm and cold currents, which moderates climate, would be notably absent.
Another outstanding charateristic of water is that water has a heat capacity which is the highest of all liquids and solids except ammonia. This characterisitc enables the oceans to absorb and store vast quantities of heat, thereby often preventing climatic extremes. In addition, water dissolves more substances than any other liquid. It is this characteristic which helps make oceans a great storehouse for minerals which have been washed down from the continents. In several areas of the world these minerals are being commercially exploited. Solar evaporation of salt is widely practised, potash is extracted from the Dead Sea, and magnesium is produced from sea water along the American Gulf Coast.
71. The author’s main purpose in this passage is to ____________.
A. illustrate the importance of conserving water
B. describe the properties and uses of water
C. compare water with other liquids
D. explain how water is used in commerce and industry
72. The phrase “this vast amount” in line 4 of paragraph 1 refers to ____________.
A. 80,000 million cubic miles of water
B. 24,000 cubic miles of rain
C. 80,000 cubic miles of water
D. 300 million cubic miles of water
73. The word “replenish” in paragraph 1 can best replaced by ____________.
A. fill again
B. replace
C. evaporate
D. form
74. According to the passage, fish can survive in the oceans because ____________.
A. evaporations and condensation create a water cycle
B. there are currents in the oceans
C. they do not need oxygen
D. ice floats
75. Which of the follow is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of water?
A. water can absorb heat
B. water is a good solvent
C. water contracts on cooling
D. water expands when it is frozen
76. The word “outstanding” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. exceptionally good
B. special
C. amusing
D. important
77. According to the passage, the hydrosphere is NOT ____________.
A. the part of the earth covered by water
B. responsible for all forms of life
C. in danger of freezing over
D. a source of natural resources
78. The author’s tone in the passage can best be described as ____________.
A. dispassionate
B. speculative
C. biased
D. dogmatic
79. The author organizes the passage by ____________.
A. juxtaposition of true and untrue ideas
B. comparison and contrast
C. general statement followed by examples
D. hypothesis and proof
80. Which of the following statements would be the most likely to begin the paragraph immediately following the passage?
A. Water has the ability to erode land
B. Droughts and flooding are two types of disasters associated with water
C. Another remarkably property of ice is its strength
D. Magnesium is widely used in metallurgical processes
SECTION E: WRITING (20 points)
I. Finnish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Write the answer on your answer sheet. (5pts)
81. The Yeti has very rarely been seen at this altitude.
→ There have been.............................................................................................................
82. When he stops smoking, he’ll feel better.
→ The sooner......................................................................................................................
83. We were very impressed by the new camera but found it rather expensive.
→ Impressed.......................................................................................................................
84. The spectators got so angry that they had to cancel the football match.
→ Such...............................................................................................................................
85. I was greatly relieved to hear that her condition was not serious.
→ It was with......................................................................................................................
II. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one, using the words given. (5 pts)
86. I suddenly realized the meaning of a “freebie”. (DAWNED)
→ The meaning of..............................................................................................................
87. I’m telling you this for you not to make a mistake. (FEAR)
→ I’m telling.........................................................................................................................
88. That hotel is a bit too expensive for us, I am afraid. (REACH)
→ That hotel is a bit.............................................................................................................
89. I don’t think this record will ever be popular. (CATCH)
→ I don’t think......................................................................................................................
90. I knew I had met him before, but I can’t remember his name. (TONGUE)
→..........................................................................................................................................
III. Write a paragraph (10 pts):
Write a paragraph of 130–160 words to express your opinion about how to use social networks (Facebook, Zalo, Twitter, Instagram, etc.) sensibly and effectively.
.....................................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................................
THE END
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