Bộ đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 7 Giữa kì 2 năm 2024 (15 đề)
Bộ đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 7 Giữa kì 2 năm 2024 (15 đề)
Tài liệu Bộ Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 7 Giữa kì 2 năm học 2021 - 2022 gồm 15 đề thi được đội ngũ Giáo viên nhiều năm kinh nghiệm biên soạn và sưu tầm từ đề thi của các trường THCS trên cả nước với cấu trúc đề thi đa dạng bám sát hình thức đánh giá chất lượng học sinh mới theo Thông tư 22 của Bộ Giáo dục & Đào tạo.
Hi vọng với 15 đề thi giữa học kì 2 Tiếng Anh lớp 7 này sẽ giúp Giáo viên có thêm bộ đề tham khảo để đánh giá đúng năng lực của học sinh, giúp học sinh lớp 7 tự rèn luyện để từ đó đạt điểm cao trong bài thi Giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7. Phần dưới trình bày một số đề thi trong bộ đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 7 Giữa kì 2, mời quí bạn đọc tải đề thi để theo dõi đầy đủ.
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....
Đề khảo sát chất lượng Giữa kì 2
Năm học 2021 - 2022
Môn: Tiếng Anh 7
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently.
1. A.kind |
B.dentist |
C.filling |
D.children |
2. A. weight |
B.weather |
C.wrong |
D.wait |
3. A. famous |
B.nervous |
C.serious |
D. loud |
4. A. catch |
B.headache |
C.check |
D.cheese |
5. A. missed |
B.moved |
C.kicked |
D.looked |
II. Choose the best option marked A, B, C or D to complete each sentence.
1. Liz and her parents ________- To Tri Nguyen Aquarium in Nha Trang last week.
A. go |
B.to go |
C.goes |
D.went |
2. The pineapples aren’t ripe and ________- are the mangoes.
A. so |
B.too |
C.either |
D.neither |
3. Coughing and sneezing are the ________- of a cold
A. signals |
B.symptoms |
C.problems |
D.disease |
4. The dentist says clean teeth are ________- teeth.
A. healthy |
B.bad |
C.well |
D.health |
III. Match a question in column A to a suitable answer in column B
A |
B |
1. What’s his height? 2. Why were you absent for school yesterday? 3. What was wrong with you? 4. Would you like to play table tennis, Nam? |
A. Because I was sick. B. I’d love to, but I can’t. C. I had a stomachache. D. He’s 40 kilos. E. He’s 1.50 meter tall.
|
IV. Read passage carefully then decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F).
Nowadays, football becomes one of the world’s most popular games. Millions of people play and watch it all around the world. A football match often has two halves. Each half is forty-five minutes. There is a fifteen-minute break between the two halves. There are two teams in a football match. Each football team has eleven players, including a goal-keeper. The players on the ground try to kich the ball into the other’s goal. The team which scores more goals wins the match.
1. Millions of people play football all around the world.
2. A football match has two halves of fifty-five minutes each.
3. There is no break in a football match.
4. Each football team has eleven players, including a goal-keeper.
V. Read the passage carefully then answer the questions below.
Mai was born in Hue , but now she lives in Ha Noi with her aunt and uncle. Yesterday was her thirteenth birthday. She had a small party with her friends. They ate a lot of food and fruits. In the evening Mai had a stomachache, so her aunt took Mai to the hospital. The doctor said that Mai ate too much candy and fruit. Today Hoa has to stay at home.
1. Where was Mai born?
2. What did Mai and her friends eat yesterday?
3. Why did Mai’s aunt take her to the hospital?
VI. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one.
1. You should add a little salt to the spinach when you boil it.
⇒ You ought _____________________________________.
2. Don’t forget to brush your teeth after meals.
⇒ Remember______________________________________.
3. Mr Ba is a good tennis player.
⇒ Mr Ba plays ____________________________________.
VII. Use the words given to make meaningful sentences.
1. Morning exercise / and / balanced diet / enough / for / healthy lifestyle.
⇒ __________________________________________.
2. I / not like / carrots / and / Hoa / not like / carrots / either.
⇒ __________________________________________.
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....
Đề khảo sát chất lượng Giữa kì 2
Năm học 2021 - 2022
Môn: Tiếng Anh 7
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.
1. A. arrived B. watched C. packed D. typed
2. A. attended B. washed C. decided D. disappointed
3. A. hand B. transport C. character D. celebration
II. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others.
4. A. children B. singer C. forget D. parents
5. A. enjoy B. agree C. attend D. student
III. Choose the correct answer to complete each following sentence by circling A, B, C or D.
6. Linda used to __________________ morning exercise when she got up early.
A. did B. does C. doing D. do
7. Keep silent! The teacher _______________.
A. is coming B. coming C. are coming D. come
8. You should look right and left when you go ________________the road.
A. down B. across C. up D. along
9. Bus is the main public ________________in Viet Nam.
A.travel B. tricycle C. transport D. vehicle
10. The film was so boring . ______________, An saw it from beginning to end.
A. Therefore B. Despite C. However D. Although
11. Lan: How__________________ are you? - Nam: I am 1.5 meter in height.
A. high B. tall C. height D. long
12. Ba: I like chicken and beef. - Mai: ________________ .
A. So do I B. So don't I C. Netheir do I D. I don't, either
13. __________________ being frightened by the images, Lan still liked the film so much.
A. In spite B. Despite C. Although D. Nevertheless
14. ________________ is La Tomatina celebrated? – Every August.
A. Where B. Why C. When D. Which
15. My father liked the _________________ of that singer.
A. perform B. performer C. performance D. performing
IV. Find the mistake in each sentence.
16. Mary is asinger beautiful. She sings very beautifully.
17. I don't like soccer and neitherdo my sister.
18. Would you like going to the restaurant with me tonight?
19. Vinh Phuc is famous to Tam Đao mountainand Dai Lai lake.
20. My mother likes " Co Dau 8 Tuoi film" becausethe film is so interested.
V. Put the correct form of the verb in brackets
21. An didn’t used (play) …………….. football in the afternoon. Now he often does it.
22. Nam (learn) ………………………..............…….. English for 8 years.
23. Last night, my father ( watch) ……..........…………………..TV.
24. Ba and I (visit)…………....................……….. Ha Long Bay this summer vacation.
25. I like (work) …………..........…..........………….. as a volunteer for that orphanage.
VI. Read the passage then decide whether each sentence is True or False
Marie was born in Poland in 1867. She learnt to read when she was 4 years old. She was intelligent and had an excellent memory. She finished high school when she was only 15 years old. When she grew up, Marie went to Paris to study Mathematics and Chemistry at the University. She won the Nobel Prize for Physics in 1903 and 8 years later she received the Nobel Prize for Chemistry. Marie Curie died in 1934.
26. Marie was born in England in 1867
27. She could read when she was 4 years old.
28. She finished high school when she was 16.
29. She received the Nobel Prize for Mathematics and Chemistry.
30. She died when she was 67 years old.
VII. Read the following text carefully and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D for each of the gap.
When you are in Singapore, you can go about (31) .................. taxi , by bus, or by underground. I myself prefer the underground (32) ................... it is fast, easy and cheap. There are (33) ................. buses and taxis in Singapore and one cannot drive along the road quicky and without many stops, especially on the Monday morning. The underground is therefore usually quicker than taxis or buses. If you do not know Singapore very well, it is difficult (34) ...................... the bus you want. You can take a taxi , but it is (35) ..................... expensive than the underground or a bus . On the underground, you find good maps that tell you the names of the stations and show you how to get to them, so that it is easy to find your way.
31. A. at B. in C. by D. to
32. A. but B. because C. when D. so
33. A. many B. a lot C. any D. much
34. A. to find B. find C. finding D. found
35. A. less B. as C. most D. more
VIII. Rewrite these following sentences using given words.
36. What is the distance between Vinh and Ho Chi Minh city?
⇒ How……………………………………………...……….?
37. I walked to school when I was a student.
⇒ I used to ……......................…………………….…………
38. Although they are short, they still love playing sports.
⇒ In spite of…………………………………………………
39. The distance from Ha Noi to Hai Phong is about 100 km
⇒ It is about……………………............................................
40. Let’s go swimming.
⇒ What ...............................................................................?
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....
Đề khảo sát chất lượng Giữa kì 2
Năm học 2021 - 2022
Môn: Tiếng Anh 7
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
Question I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others.
1. A. cycled B. walked C. crossed D. brushed
2. A. station B. mistake C. safety D. action
3. A. traffic B. license C. disaster D. favorite
4. A. nevertheless B. incredible C. government D. met
5. A. features B. coconuts C. mangoes D. things
Question II. Circle the right answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences.
6. The film was so boring . ………,Jack saw it from the beginning to the end.
A. Therefore B. However C. Although D. Despite
7. According to the report, many road users don’t…………traffic rules.
A. obey B. obeying C. to obey D. obeyed
8. I used to ride my bike to school………….I was small.
A. where B. because C. when D. although
9. My father …………the bus to work every day, but I cycle.
A. catches B. drives C. goes D. runs
10. Minh………..English for 7 years.
A. was learnt B. have learnt C. is learnt D. has learnt
11. …………..about 5kilometers from my house to the nearest town.
A. They’re B. It’s C. There’re D. There’s
12. Be a Buddy was founded………….to help the homeless children.
A. since 2010 B. in 2010 C. for 2010 D. every year
13. “Oggy and the cockroaches” is…….…as “Tom and Jerry”.
A. as funny B. as funny than C. more funny as D. as funnier
14. Look! The bus…………….
A. came B. come C. is coming D. comes
15. They like…………….in the local orphanage.
A. work B. paint C. works D. working
16.The weather in Ha Noi is different………..that in Ho Chi Minh city.
A.to B.from C.with D.as
17. My father ……………drive a car to work last year.
A.used to B.use to C.used D.uses
18. I’m sure that you’ll find the film………….
A.interested B.interesting C.interest D.interests
19……………coming late,Tom still enjoyed the whole comedy.
A.Despite B.Despite of C.Although D. In spite
20. I didn’t…………..go out on Sundays.
A.used to B.uses C.uses to D. use to
21. My teacher was……………..that I got good marks on Math test.
A.amazing B.amazed C.amazes D.to amaze
22. Action film is very frightening…………., many people like watching it.
A.although B.in spite of C.However D.Despite
23. ………….are you going to stay in Hue? - For a week
A.How long B.How C.How often D.How far
Question III. Choose the words or phrases that are incorrect then correct them.
24. Although they spent a lot of money on the film,but it wasn’t a big performance.
25. We used to cycled to school last year.
26. The film was so bored that all people fell asleep.
27. In spite of he is old, he runs seven kilometers everyday.
Question IV. Read the passage then choose the correct answer to fill in each gap.
When you are in Singapore, you can go around (28)....... taxi , by bus, or by underground. I myself prefer the underground (29) ................... it is fast, easy and cheap. There are (30) .......... buses and taxis in Singapore and one cannot drive along the road (31)........... and without many stops, especially on the Monday morning. The underground is therefore usually quicker (32) .................... taxis or buses. If you do not know Singapore very well, it is difficult to find the bus you want.
28. A. at B. in C. by D. on
29. A. but B. because C. when D. although
30. A. many B. a lot C. few D. little
31. A. quick B. quickly C. quicker D. quickness
32. A. so B. like C. than D. as
Question V. Read the passage then choose the correct answer for the questions below
One of the most popular quiz programmes on television in the world is called Who Wants To Be A Millionaire?In Britain, the quiz master is Chris Tarrant. He asks the contestants fifteen questions. The first questions are easy but later they are more difficult. If you can answer the fourteenth question, you can win £500,000. You can win a million pounds if you can answer the last question. Of course, the last question is very difficult. All the questions on Who Wants To Be A Millionaire? are multiple-choice questions. After you hear the question, you see four answers. Only one answer is correct. You have to choose the correct answer. If you don’t know the answer to a question, there are three ways you can get help: you can ask the quizmaster to take away two wrong answers: you can ask the studio audience which answer is right; or you can telephone a friend and ask for help. You can only do these things once. Very few people win a million pounds. The first person won a millon pounds one year after the programmestarted. Today, Who Wants To Be A Millionaire?can be seen in more than 100 countries and is now the world’s most popular quiz programme.
33. Who is the quiz master in Britain?
A. Chris Tarrant B.a millionaire C.a friend D.the first person
34. How much can you win if you can answer 15 questions?
A. £500,000 B.a million pounds C.a million D.nothing
35. How many ways to help you are there if you don’t know the answer?
A.one B. two C.fifteen D.three
36.Was there anyone who won a million pounds?
A. Yes,there was B. No,there wasn’t C. Yes, he did D. No, he didn’t
Question VI. Write a paragraph (about 60-80 words) to tell about your favorite film.( name or title of the film,type of film, stars, acting ……)
....................................
....................................
....................................
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