Đề minh họa Tiếng Anh vào lớp 10 Phú Thọ (Chuyên) năm 2026

Bài viết cập nhật Đề minh họa Tiếng Anh vào lớp 10 năm 2026 Phú Thọ (Chuyên) giúp học sinh làm quen với các ra đề từ đó có thêm tài liệu ôn thi vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh.

Đề minh họa Tiếng Anh vào lớp 10 Phú Thọ (Chuyên) năm 2026

- (Chỉ 250k) Bộ 140 đề ôn thi vào 10 Tiếng Anh form Hà Nội; Tp.HCM chọn lọc, theo cấu trúc mới bản word có lời giải chi tiết:

Xem thử Đề thi vào 10 Tiếng Anh 2025 Xem thử Chuyên đề ôn vào 10 Tiếng Anh Xem thử Bộ 140 đề form Hà Nội Xem thử Bộ đề form Tp.HCM

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KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT NĂM HỌC 2026-2027 ĐỂ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH Dành cho thí sinh thi vào lớp chuyên Tiếng Anh, Tiếng Nga, Tiếng Trung Quốc, Tiếng Pháp, Tiếng Nhật Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

I. LISTENING (2.0 points)

Part 1. For questions 1-8, you will hear an extract from an audio guide to the Taj Mahal and complete the tasks that follow. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on your answer sheet.

Bài nghe:

Questions 1-4. Label the plan below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

1. __________

2. __________

3. __________

4. __________

Question 5. Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

What is the purpose of the Rest House?

A. a place for the poor to stay

B. a meeting place for pilgrims

C. an architectural feature

Questions 6-8. Complete the flow chart below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

How running water is provided

Water taken from the 6. __________ by bullocks.

Water channelled into the 7. __________

Water piped to the 8. __________

Part 2. For questions 9-14, listen to a radio discussion about children who invent imaginary friends and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on your answer sheet.

Bài nghe:

9. In the incident that Liz describes _______.

A. her daughter asked her to stop the car

B. she had to interrupt the journey twice

C. she got angry with her daughter

D. her daughter wanted to get out of the car

10. What does the presenter say about the latest research into imaginary friends?

A. It contradicts other research on the subject.

B. It shows that the number of children who have them is increasing.

C. It indicates that negative attitudes towards them are wrong.

D. It focuses on the effect they have on parents.

11. How did Liz feel when her daughter had an imaginary friend?

A. Always confident that it was only a temporary situation.

B. Occasionally worried about the friend's importance to her daughter.

C. Slightly confused as to how she should respond sometimes.

D. Highly impressed by her daughter's inventiveness.

12. Karen says that one reason why children have imaginary friends is that _______.

A. they are having serious problems with their real friends

B. they can tell imaginary friends what to do

C. they want something that they cannot be given

D. they want something that other children haven't got

13. Karen says that the teenager who had invented a superhero is an example of ________.

A. a very untypical teenager

B. a problem that imaginary friends can cause

C. something she had not expected to discover

D. how children change as they get older

14. According to Karen, how should parents react to imaginary friends?

A. They should pretend that they like the imaginary friend.

B. They shouldn't get involved in the child's relationship with the friend.

C. They should take action if the situation becomes annoying.

D. They shouldn't discuss the imaginary friend with their child.

Part 3. You will hear a man called Paul Osborne sharing his work experience as a videogame designer. For questions 15-20, complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the listening. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on your answer sheet.

Bài nghe:

VIDEOGAME DESIGNER

Paul says that people tend to think he’s a game (15) ______ rather than a designer.

As a part of his education Paul did a course in (16) ______ which significantly helped his career.

Paul worked with what is known as (17) ______ in his first job.

Paul uses the word (18) ______ to describe what multiplayers in a game can create for themselves.

Paul says that getting the level of (19) ______ right is one of the most challenging aspects of game design.

Paul names (20) ______ as the most crucial quality any game designer should have.

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (3.0 points)

Part 1. For questions 21-35, write the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best completes each of the following sentences. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on your answer sheet.

21. ______ from a distance, it resembles a cloud.

A. There being viewed

B. When viewed

C. It being viewed

D. Having viewed

22. Several members have not replied for over three years and their names have ______ been removed from the mailing list.

A. therefore

B. nevertheless

C. however

D. so

23. The beauty of air travel consists ______ its speed and ease.

A. in

B. with

C. of

D. on

24. Much to our relief, Smith had a lucky escape. He ______ killed.

A. ought to have been

B. should have been

C. must have been

D. could have been

25. By the time their baby arrives, the Johnsons hope ______ painting and decorating the new nursery.

A. having been finished

B. to have finished

C. to have been finished

D. having finished

26. The packages just mailed at the post office will arrive on Monday, ______?

A. won’t they

B. will they

C. did they

D. didn’t they

27. Once primarily observed with official state ceremonies and local gatherings, ______.

A. the Reunification Day holiday now frequently becomes a peak time for domestic travel

B. a peak time for domestic travel now frequently becomes the Reunification Day holiday

C. now frequently becomes the Reunification Day holiday a peak time for domestic travel

D. domestic travel sees a peak time frequently now during the Reunification Day holiday

28. _______ so incredible is that these insects successfully migrate to places they have never seen.

A. That makes the monarch butterflies' migration

B. The migration of the monarch butterflies is

C. What makes the monarch butterflies' migration

D. The migration of the monarch butterflies, which is

29. Mrs. Davies asked me to tell you that she would like ______ by Friday at the latest.

A. the orders sent

B. sending the orders

C. sent the orders

D. that you sent

30. I’ve been trying to ring him all evening but I can’t ______.

A. get over

B. get through

C. get across

D. get by

31. ______ while working part-time can help students establish their independence and make them more flexible in the working environment.

A. That living alone

B. Living alone

C. What living alone

D. Where to live alone

32. The government has ______ that homelessness is a problem, but it has failed to grasp the scale of the problem.

A. admitted

B. confessed

C. overlooked

D. approved

33. Helen found the movie ______ funny. She couldn't help laughing every time she watched it.

A. comically

B. jokingly

C. humorously

D. hilariously

34. I haven't read any medical books on the subject for a long time, so I'm ______ with recent developments.

A. out of reach

B. out of shape

C. out of touch

D. out of the question

35. John and Mary are talking about the change.

John: What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary! - Mary: “______.”

A. Thank you very much. I am afraid

B. You are telling a lie

C. Thank you for your compliment

D. I don't like your saying

Part 2. For questions 36-45, supply the correct form of the word in brackets. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on your answer sheet.

Three hundred and fifty years before the first men looked down on the amazingly beautiful surface of the moon from close quarters, Galileo’s newly built telescope (36. ABLE) ______ him to look at the edge of the hitherto mysterious sphere. He saw that the apparently (37. LIVE) ______ surface was not divinely smooth and round, but bumpy and imperfect. He realized that although the moon might appear (38. ACT) ______, resembling a still life painted by the hand of a cosmic (39. ART) ______, it was a real world, perhaps not very different from our own. This amounted to a great (40. ACHIEVE) ______ hardly to be expected in his day and age, although nowadays his (41. CONCLUDE) ______ may appear to some to be trivial and (42. SIGNIFY) ______.

Not long after Galileo’s lunar observations, the skies which had previously been so (43. ELUDE) ______ revealed more of their extraordinary mysteries. Casting around for further wonders, Galileo focused his lens on the (44. STRIKE) ______ planet of Jupiter. Nestling next to it, he saw four little points of light circling the distant planet. Our moon it appeared, perhaps (45. FORTUNE) ______ in the eyes of those fearful of what the discovery might mean, was not alone!

Part 3. For questions 46-50, identify 5 mistakes in the following passage and correct them. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on your answer sheet.

It is a well-known fact that Japanese people have a longer life expectancy than the population

of most other countries. A recent report shows that the Japanese also expect to remain healthier for longer. Scientists are trying to work out which keeps elderly Japanese people so healthy, and whether there is a lesson from which we benefit. Should we make any changes to our eating habits, for instance, or go jogging each day before breakfast? Is there some secret ingredient in the Japanese diet that is particularly beneficial for the human body? Because the prospect of a longer, healthier life is a good thing for the individual, it can create a social problem.

A number of people over the age of 65 in the population has doubled in the last 50 years and that has increased pension and medical costs. Japan could soon be encountered an economic

problem: there are more elderly people who need to be looked after and relatively fewer younger people working and pay taxes to support them. One solution could be to raise retirement age from 65 to 70. After all, the elderly have a great deal to contribute. If they continue to be active in society, younger generations will have the chance to learn their wisdom from experience.

III. READING (3.0 points)

Part 1. For questions 51-60, read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the answer that best fits the blank in the following passage. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on your answer sheet.

Global warming could cause drought and possibly famine in China, the source of much of Hong Kong's food, by 2050, a new report predicts. Hong Kong could also be (51) ______ from flooding as sea level rose. The report (52) ______ building sea-walls around low-lying areas such as the new port and airport reclamations. (53) ______ by the WorldWide Fund For Nature (WWF), the report, which includes work by members of the Chinese Academic Meteorological Sciences, uses the most recent projections on climate change to point to a gloomy (54) ______ for China.

By 2050, about 30 to 40 per cent of the country will experience changes in the type of vegetation it (55) ______, with tropical and subtropical forest conditions (56) ______ northward and hot desert conditions rising in the west where currently the desert is temperate, crop-growing areas will expand but any benefit is expected to be negated by increased evaporation of (57) ______, making it too dry to grow crops such as rice. The growing season is also expected to (58) ______, becoming shorter in southern and central China, the mainland's (59) ______.

The rapid changes make it (60) ______ that plants could adapt.

51.

A. at a loss

B. at risk

C. at it again

D. at random

52.

A. comments

B. realizes

C. agrees

D. recommends

53.

A. Having published

B. Published

C. To publish

D. Publishing

54.

A. outlook

B. perspective

C. view

D. sight

55.

A. supports

B. grows

C. raises

D. rises

56.

A. running

B. shifting

C. dashing

D. rushing

57.

A. land

B. soil

C. moisture

D. humid

58.

A. reshape

B. remain

C. rotate

D. alter

59.

A. breadwinner

B. breadline

C. breadbasket

D. breadboard

60.

A. unforthcoming

B. unlikely

C. unchanged

D. unregulated

Part 2. For questions 61-70, read the following passage and fill each numbered blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on your answer sheet.

Genetically modified (GM) foods, also known as genetically engineered foods, are products created by altering the DNA of plants or animals through (61)______ engineering techniques. This manipulation allows scientists to introduce specific traits (62)______ the organisms, such as resistance to pests, tolerance to herbicides, or improve nutritional content. The development of GM foods has raised significant debate and controversy globally. Supporters argue that (63)______ foods hold promise in addressing various agricultural challenges, (64)______ increasing crop yields, reducing the need for chemical pesticides, and enhancing nutritional value. (65)______, critics express concerns about potential risks to human health and the environment, as well as ethical considerations related to tampering with the genetic makeup of living organisms. (66)______ these controversies, GM foods have become increasingly prevalent in our food supply, with crops (67)______ soybeans, corn, and cotton being commonly genetically modified. Nevertheless, there are ongoing discussions about the need for clear labeling of GM foods to inform consumers and allow them to (68)______ informed choices. The debate surrounding GM foods reflects the complex interplay (69)______ science, technology, ethics, and agriculture in our modern world. As research continues and technology advances, it is essential to consider both the potential benefits and risks (70)______ with the widespread adoption of GM foods.

Part 3. For questions 71-80, read the following passage and choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) for each of the questions below. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on your answer sheet.

In the course of its history, human inventions have dramatically increased the average amount of energy available for use per person. Primitive peoples in cold regions burned wood and animal dung to heat their caves, cook food, and drive off animals by fire. The first step toward the developing of more efficient fuels was taken when people discovered that they could use vegetable oils and animal fats in lieu of gathered or cut wood. Charcoal gave off a more intense heat than wood and was more easily obtainable than organic fats. The Greeks first began to use coal for metal smelting in the 4th century, but it did not come into extensive use until the Industrial Revolution.

In the 1700s, at the beginning of the Industrial Revolution, most energy used in the United States and other nations undergoing industrialization was obtained from perpetual and renewable sources, such as wood, water streams, domesticated animal labor, and wind. These were predominantly locally available supplies. By mid-1800s, 91 percent of all commercial energy consumed in the United States and European countries was obtained from wood. However, at the beginning of the 20th century, coal became a major energy source and replaced wood in industrializing countries. Although in most regions and climate zones wood was more readily accessible than coal, the latter represents a more concentrated source of energy. In 1910, natural gas and oil firmly replaced coal as the main source of fuel because they are lighter and, therefore, cheaper to transport. They burned more cleanly than coal and polluted less. Unlike coal, oil could be refined to manufacture liquid fuels for vehicles; a very important consideration in the early 1900s, when the automobile arrived on the scene.

By 1984, nonrenewable fossil fuels, such as oil, coal, and natural gas, provided over 82 percent of the commercial and industrial energy used in the world. Small amounts of energy were derived from nuclear fission, and the remaining 16 percent came from burning direct perpetual and renewable fuels, such as biomass. Between 1700 and 1986, a large number of countries shifted from the use of energy from local sources to a centralized generation of hydropower and solar energy converted to electricity. The energy derived from nonrenewable fossil fuels has been increasingly produced in one location and transported to another, as is the case with most automobile fuels. In countries with private, rather than public transportation, the age of nonrenewable fuels has created a dependency on a finite resource that will have to be replaced.

Alternative fuel sources are numerous, and shale oil and hydrocarbons are just two examples. The extraction of shale oil from large deposits in Asian and European regions has proven to be labor consuming and costly. The resulting product is sulfur- and nitrogen- rich, and large-scale extractions are presently prohibitive. Similarly, the extraction of hydrocarbons from tar sands in Alberta and Utah is complex.

Semi-solid hydrocarbons cannot be easily separated from the sandstone and limestone that carry them, and modern technology is not sufficiently versatile for a large-scale removal of the material. However, both sources of fuel may eventually be needed as petroleum prices continue to rise and limitations in fossil fuel availability make alternative deposits more attractive.

71. What is the main topic of the passage?

A. Applications of various fuels

B. Natural resources and fossil fuels

C. A history of energy use

D. A historical overview of energy rates

72. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that _____.

A. coal mining was essential for primitive peoples

B. the Greeks used coal in industrial production

C. the development of efficient fuels was a gradual process

D. the discovery of efficient fuels was mostly accidental

73. The phrase “in lieu of” in paragraph 1 is CLOSEST in meaning to _____.

A. in spite of

B. in place of

C. in view of

D. in charge of

74. What can be inferred about the global energy situation by 1984?

A. Nations had become heavily dependent on fuels that could not be renewed within a human lifetime.

B. Most countries had already transitioned to solar and hydropower as their main energy sources.

C. The share of renewable fuels had been steadily increasing since the early 1900s.

D. Energy production had returned to being largely local and community-based.

75. The phrase “the latter” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. wood

B. coal

C. most regions

D. climate zones

76. In paragraph 2, the author contrasts the sources of energy used at the start of the Industrial Revolution with those used later mainly to show that ______.

A. societies have consistently relied on a balance of renewable and non-renewable energy

B. technological progress has been closely linked to the exploitation of increasingly concentrated fuels

C. early industrial societies ignored the potential of fossil fuels until the twentieth century

D. renewable energy sources remained dominant throughout industrialization

77. According to the passage, what was the greatest advantage of oil as fuel?

A. It was a concentrated source of energy.

B. It was lighter and cheaper than coal.

C. It replaced wood and coal and reduced pollution.

D. It could be converted to automobile fuel.

78. It can be inferred from the passage that in the early 20th century, energy was obtained primarily from ______.

A. fossil fuels

B. nuclear fission

C. hydraulic and solar sources

D. burning biomass

79. The word “prohibitive” in paragraph 4 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.

A. uninhibited

B. redundant

C. inexpensive

D. inexpedient

80. Which of the following best captures the author’s overall view of humanity’s changing relationship with energy?

A. Human progress has depended on moving from easily available local resources to centralized, nonrenewable fuels, a shift that now forces us to seek costly alternatives.

B. The search for energy efficiency has always benefited both the environment and the global economy equally.

C. Renewable energy has consistently remained humanity’s main source of power despite industrial expansion.

D. Modern society has successfully balanced the use of fossil fuels with the preservation of renewable resources.

V. WRITING (2.0 points)

Part 1. Sentence transformation

For questions 81-85, finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. Write your answers in the space provided on your answer sheet.

81. Although I didn’t want to go out so late, I had no choice.

Reluctant ______________________________________________.

82. Whatever happens, I will never trust him again.

Under _________________________________________________.

83. It wasn’t necessary for you to go to so much trouble on my behalf.

You needn’t ____________________________________________.

84. His condition improved so rapidly that he was discharged from the hospital early.

There was so __________________________________________.

85. Student achievement increases with study time.

The more hours ________________________________________.

For questions 86-90, use the words given in brackets to complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first. You must use between TWO and SIX words, including the word given. Do not change the word given in brackets. Write your answers in the space provided on your answer sheet.

86. Everything would have worked out if you hadn’t changed what we originally agreed. (STUCK)

Had you ______________________ , everything would have worked out.

87. It didn’t take Steven long to show his true character. (MATTER)

It was ______________________ Steven showed his true character.

88. If we take everything into account, the street party was a great success in the end. (CONSIDERED)

All ______________________ out to be a great success in the end.

89. His colleague will do anything to avoid confrontation. (LENGTHS)

His colleague ______________________ to avoid confrontation.

90. I’m sure everything would have gone fine yesterday if Tanya hadn’t interfered. (SMOOTHLY)

Without Tanya’s ______________________ yesterday, I’m sure.

Part 2. Paragraph writing

Teenagers should be encouraged to spend more time doing outdoor activities instead of using electronic devices.

Write a paragraph of about 140–160 words expressing your opinion on this view. Write your answer in the space provided on your answer sheet.

Xem thử Đề thi vào 10 Tiếng Anh 2025 Xem thử Chuyên đề ôn vào 10 Tiếng Anh Xem thử Bộ 140 đề form Hà Nội Xem thử Bộ đề form Tp.HCM Xem thử Giải Đề chính thức vào 10 Hà Nội Xem thử Giải Đề chính thức vào 10 Tp.HCM Xem thử Giải Đề chính thức vào 10 Đà Nẵng

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