Đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng Anh 10 có đáp án (5 đề)

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Đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng Anh 10 có đáp án (5 đề)

Để học tốt Tiếng Anh 10, phần dưới đây liệt kê các Đề kiểm tra, Đề thi Tiếng Anh 10 Học kì 2. Hi vọng bộ đề thi này sẽ giúp bạn ôn luyện & đạt điểm cao trong các bài thi môn Tiếng Anh 10.

Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 2

Môn: Tiếng Anh 10

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 1)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions from 1 to 3

Question 1:

A. secretary

B. necessary

C. classifies

D. vocabulary

Question 2:

A. endangered

B. humidity

C. interested

D. incredible

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions

Question 3:

A. lean

B. teammate

C. beacon

D. overhead

Question 4:

A. stayed

B. cooked

C. learned

D. studied

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 5 to 16

Question 5: By tomorrow, the car _____ by me.

A. will have been bought

B. will be bought

C. was being bought

D. was bought

Question 6: The activities of the international marketing researcher are frequently much broader than _____.

A. the domestic marketer has

B. the domestic marketer does

C. those of the domestic marketer

D. that which has the domestic marketer

Question 7: "_____ anyone ring while I’m away, please take a message."

A. Will    B. May    C. Should    D. Would

Question 8: She had to pass all her exams, or _____ she would not have a holiday.

A. instead

B. else

C. though

D. therefore

Question 9: My uncle was ______ ill last summer; however, fortunately, he is now making a slow but steady recovery.

A. seriously

B. deeply

C. fatally

D. critically

Question 10: _____ wooden buildings helps to protect them from damage due to weather.

A. The paint

B. Painted

C. By painting

D. Painting

Question 11: I met a girl at my friend's birthday party last Sunday.

A. tall American pretty

B. tall pretty American

C. pretty American tall

D. pretty tall American

Question 12: George won five medals at the competition. His parents _____ very proud of him.

A. could have been

B. can’t have

C. can’t be

D. must have been

Question 13: We hire our bicycle _________

A. by the hour

B. by hours

C. by an hour

D. for hours

Question 14: My decision to leave university after a year is one I now_________regret.

A. harshly

B. painfully

C. keenly

D. heavily

Question 15: He kept his marriage for years, but eventually the truth ________

A. came out

B. went out

C. came through

D. fell out

Question 16: The larger the area of forest is destroyed, .

A. the most frequent natural disasters are

B. the more frequent are natural disasters

C. the more frequently natural disasters occur

D. the most frequently natural disasters occur

Question 17: Jenifer and Susan are talking about a book they have just read.

- Jennifer: “ The book is really interesting and it’s hard to put it down.”- Susan: “______”

A. Don’t mention it.

B. I couldn’t agree with you more.

C. That’s nice of you to say so.

D. It’s alright.

Question 18: Peter: “My mother’s much better now.” - Kyle: “______”

A. Oh, I’m pleased to hear it

B. Oh, really? The doctor must be very good

C. Wonderful! Congratulations

D. Good news for you

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following question

Question 19: Dozens of applicants showed up for the vacant position, but only a handful of them were shortlisted for the interview.

A. small amount

B. person

C. hand

D. small number

Question 20: He made one last futile effort to convince her and left home.

A. favorable

B. difficult

C. ineffectual

D. firm

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following question

Question 21: A frightening number of illiterate students are graduating from college.

A. able to read and write

B. able to join intramural sport

C. inflexible

D. unable to pass an examination in reading and writing

Question 22: You should put yourself on the back for having achieved such a high score in the graduation exam.

A. criticize yourself

B. wear a backpack

C. praise yourself

D. check up your back

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions from 23 to 25.

Question 23: Everyone needs (A) special care and attention (B) so that he or she (C) will grow up into (D) a responsible human being.

Question 24: Some of the (A) people were standing (B) in the street watched (C) the parade, while others (D) we were singing songs.

Question 25: The streets are (A) crowded with (B) a population who (C) has no interest (D) in learning.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions from 26 to 28.

Question 26: The police questioned two men but neither of them could speak English.

A. The police questioned two Englishmen in English.

B. The police questioned two men who could not speak English.

C. Neither of the Englishmen was questioned by the police.

D. Either of the men could answer the police questions in English.

Question 27: The purpose of any invention is to make our lives better, so good or bad, it depends on the way by which we use these inventions.

A. Whether an invention is good or bad depends on the way by which we use it because the purpose of any invention is to make our lives better.

B. We can use either good or bad inventions to make our lives better.

C. The purpose of any invention, whether good or bad, is to make our lives better. This depends on the way by which we use these inventions.

D. Good or bad as they are, all inventions have the same purpose to make our lives better.

Question 28: California attracted people from many countries when gold was discovered in 1848.

A. Discovered in 1848, gold was attractive to people in California.

B. Discovered in California in 1848, gold attracted people from many countries there.

C. Gold in California was discovered in 1848 after many people came here.

D. When people are attracted to California, they discovered gold in 1848.

Question 29: My sister didn’t leave the car key. As a result, I couldn’t pick her up at the airport.

A. If my sister left the car key, I would pick her up at the airport.

B. If my sister had left the car key, I would have picked her up at the airport.

C. If my sister have left the car key, I would have picked her up at the airport.

D. If my sister had left the car key, I could pick her up at the airport.

Question 30: Women still cover their heads in some countries. They did so in the past.

A. In the past, women cover their heads but they do so today in some countries.

B. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did in the past.

C. Women still cover their heads in some countries similar to what they did so in the past.

D. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did so in the past.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Vietnamese footballing history has been rewritten by the country's U23 team, which secured a place in the final of the Asian Football Confederation Under-23 (AFC U23) Championship thanks to a dramatic victory (31)______ Qatar.

The Qatari team, which had won all its previous matches in the (32)______, opened the score-board with a successful penalty in the first half. (33)______, Vietnam equalized halfway through the second half with a goal from Nguyen Quang Hai. The last few minutes of the second half saw Qatar take the lead, before Hai once again scored the equalizer for Vietnam to bring the match to (34)______ time, which ended goalless.

In the penalty shootout, the Vietnamese team (35)______ victorious after successfully converting four out of its five penalty kicks, while keeper Bui Tien Dung managed to save two penalties from the Qatari side.

Question 31:

A. from    >B. over    C. on    D. to

Question 32:

A. tournament

B. semifinal

C. quarterfinal

D. final

Question 33:

A. Although

B. Because

C. However

D. Despite

Question 34:

A. more    B. many    C. extra    D. much

Question 35:

A. emerged

B. win

C. achieve

D. become

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

The food we eat seems to have profound effects on our health. Although science has made enormous steps in making food more fit to eat, it has, at the same time, made many foods unfit to eat. Some research has shown that perhaps eighty percent of all human illnesses are related to diet and forty percent of cancer is related to the diet as well, especially cancer of the colon. People of different cultures are more prone to contact certain illnesses because of the characteristic foods they consume.

That food is related to illness is not a new discovery. In 1945, government researchers realized that nitrates nitrites (commonly used to preserve color in meat) as well as other food additives caused cancer. Yet, these carcinogenic additives remain in our food, and it becomes more difficult all the time to know which ingredients on the packaging label of processed food are helpful or harmful.

The additives that we eat are not all so direct. Farmers often give penicillin to cattle and poultry, and because of this, penicillin has been found in the milk of treated cows.

Sometimes similar drugs are administered to animals not for medical purposes, but for financial reasons. The farmers are simply trying to fatten the animals in order to obtain a higher price on the market. Although the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has tried repeatedly to control these procedures, the practices continue.

A healthy diet is directly related to good health. Often we are unaware of detrimental substances we ingest. Sometimes well-meaning farmers or others who do not realize the consequences add these substances to food without our knowledge.

Question 36: How has science done to disservice to people?

A. As a result of scientific intervention, some potentially harmful substances have been added to our food

B. The scientists have preserved the color of meats, but not of vegetables

C. It caused a lack of information concerning the value of food

D. Because of science, disease caused by contaminated food has been virtually eradicated.

Question 37: What are nitrates used for?

A. They preserve the color of meat

B. They preserve flavor in package food

C. The are objects of research

D. They cause the animals become fatter

Question 38: FDA means ______________

A. Federal Dairy Additives

B. Food and Drug Administration

C.Final Difficult Analysis

D. Food Direct Additives

Question 39: All of the following statements are TRUE except ______________

A. Drug are always given to animals for medical reasons

B. Food may cause forty percent of the cancer in the world

C. Researchers have known about the potential hazard of food additives for more than 45 years

D. Some of the additives in our food are added to the food itself and some are given to the living animals

Question 40: What is best title for this passage?

A. The food you eat can affect your health

B. Harmful and Harmless substances in food

C. Avoiding injurious substances in food

D. Improving health through a Natural Diet

Đáp án

Quenstion 1	Quenstion 2	Quenstion 3	Quenstion 4	Quenstion 5
D	C	D	B	A
Quenstion 6	Quenstion 7	Quenstion 8	Quenstion 9	Quenstion 10
C	C	B	A	D
Quenstion 11	Quenstion 12	Quenstion 13	Quenstion 14	Quenstion 15
D		A	B	A
Quenstion 16	Quenstion 17	Quenstion 18	Quenstion 19	Quenstion 20
C	B	A	D	C
Quenstion 21	Quenstion 22	Quenstion 23	Quenstion 24	Quenstion 25
A	A	C	C	C
Quenstion 26	Quenstion 27	Quenstion 28	Quenstion 29	Quenstion 30
B	A	B	B	B
Quenstion 31	Quenstion 32	Quenstion 33	Quenstion 34	Quenstion 35
B	A	C	C	A
Quenstion 36	Quenstion 37	Quenstion 38	Quenstion 39	Quenstion 40
A	A	B	A	A

Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 2

Môn: Tiếng Anh 10

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 2)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. kites

B. hopes

C. balls

D. kicks

Question 2:

A. hire

B. hour

C. hair

D. hi

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. answer

B. destroy

C. allow

D. complain

Question 4:

A. twenty

B. reporter

C. notebook

D. poverty

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5: I am gripped with a fever whenever a new year is coming.

A. I feel disappointed

B. I am excited

C. I get upset

D. I have got a temperature

Question 6: It was relatively easy for him to learn baseball because he had been a cricket player.

A. nearly

B. essentially

C. comparatively

D. approximately

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: The presentation by Dr. Dineen was self-explanatory.

A. bright

B. discouraging

C. confusing

D. enlightening

Question 8: She gave an impeccable reading of the sonata and had the audience on their feet.

A. unqualified

B. imperfect

C. suspicious

D. negative

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 9: Hoa is asking Hai, who is sitting at a corner of the room, seeming too shy.

   - Hoa: “Why aren’t you taking part in our activities? _______” - Hai: “Yes, I can. Certainly.”

A. Could you please show me how to get the nearest post office?

B. Shall I take your hat off?

C. Can you help me with this decoration?

D. Can I help you?

Question 10: Mary is talking to a porter in the hotel lobby.

   - Porter: “Shall I help you with your suitcase?” - Mary: “_________”

A. What nonsense!

B. That’s very kind of you.

C. What a pity!

D. I can’t agree more.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D in your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 11: Dams are used to control flooding, provide water for irrigation, and generating electricity for the surrounding area.

A. to control flooding

B. irrigation

C. generating

D. surrounding area

Question 12: Weather and geography conditions may determine the type of transportation used in a region.

A. Weather

B. geography

C. type

D. used

Question 13: Geothermal energy is energy to obtain by using heat from the Earth’s interior.

A. energy

B. to obtain

C. using

D. the Earth’s

Question 14: The more tired you are, the least hard you concentrate.

A. more tired

B. you are

C. least hard

D. concentrate

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 15: If I hadn’t had so much work to do, I would have gone to the movies.

A. I never go to the movies if I had work to do.

B. Because I had to do so much work, I couldn’t go to the movies.

C. I would go to the movies when I had done so much work.

D. A lot of work couldn’t prevent me from going to the movies.

Question 16: It is an undeniable fact that children watch too much TV.

A. It’s undeniable that too many children watch TV.

B. It’s undeniable that children don’t watch too many TV programmes.

C. It can’t be denied that children watch too many TV programmes.

D. It’s obviously true that children spend too much time watching TV.

Question 17: You usually drive fast. You use more petrol than usual.

A. The faster you drive, the more you use petrol.

B. The more you drive fast, the more you use petrol.

C. The faster you drive, the more petrol you use.

D. The more fast you drive, the more petrol you use.

Question 18: The agreement ended six-month negotiation. It was signed yesterday.

A. The agreement which was signed yesterday lasted six-month.

B. The agreement which was signed yesterday ended six-month negotiation.

C. The agreement which ends six-month negotiation was signed yesterday.

D. The agreement which lasted six-month was signed yesterday.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question.

Question 19: ________, we stay inside the house.

A. The storm day it was

B. It is a stormy day

C. It was a stormy day

D. It being a stormy day

Question 20: Unless you _______ well-trained, you _______ to the company.

A. aren’t / will never be admitted

B. aren’t / will never admit

C. are / will never be admitted

D. are / will never admit

Question 21: Fax transmission has now become a cheap and _______ way to transmit texts and graphics over distance.

A. convenient

B. inconvenient

C. uncomfortable

D. comfortable

Question 22: ________, we tried our best to complete it.

A. Difficult as the homework was

B. As though the homework was difficult

C. Thanks to the difficult homework

D. Despite the homework was difficult

Question 23: That carcinogenic substances _______ in many common household items is well-known.

A. are contained

B. containing

C. are containing

D. contained

Question 24: The second-hand car Patrick bought was almost new _______ it was made in the 1990s.

A. or

B. because

C. although

D. however

Question 25: I like doing _______ such as cooking, washing and cleaning the house.

A. house-keeper

B. household chores

C. lord of house

D. white house

Question 26: Unfortunately, some really ill animals have to be ________ by our center.

A. pass away

B. turned over

C. taken out

D. put down

Question 27: I _______ Lan since she went abroad.

A. wasn’t met

B. hadn’t met

C. didn’t meet

D. haven’t met

Question 28: “Did the minister approve the building plans?”

“Not really. He turned them down _______ that the costs were too high.”

A. in case

B. supposing

C. provided

D. on the grounds

Question 29: Failing to submit the proposal on time was _____ for Tom.

A. a real kick in the pants

B. an open and shut case

C. a shot in the dark

D. a nail in the coffin

Question 30: They always kept on good _______ with their next-door neighbors for the children’s sake.

A. relations

B. terms

C. will

D. relationship

Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to eac of the blanks.

American folk music originated with (31)________ people at a time when the rural population was isolated and music was not (32)________ spread by radio, records, or music video. It was (33)_______ by oral traditional and is noted for its energy, humor, and emotional impact. The major source of early American folk songs was music from the British Isles, but songs from Africa as songs of the American Indians have significant part in its heritage. Later settler from other countries also contributed songs. In the nineteenth century, composer Steven Foster wrote some of the most enduringly popular of all American songs, (34)_________ soon became part of the folk tradition. Beginning in the 1930s, Woody Guthrie gained great popularity by adapting melodies and lyrics and supplying new ones as well. In the 1950s and 1960s, singer – composers such as Peter Seeger, Bob Dylan, Joan Baez continued this tradition by urban’ folk music. Many of these songs deal (35)________ important social issue, such as racial integration and the war in Vietnam.

Question 31:

A. ordinary

B. popular

C. common

D. typical

Question 32:

A. even    B. still    C. until    D. yet

Question 33:

A. transferred

B. transformed

C. transmitted

D. transited

Question 34:

A. which    B. this    C. who    D. that

Question 35:

A. in    B. by    C. with    D. at

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument of wisdom and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B .C . Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of its construction makes it one of the truly wonders of the world. The thirteen- acre structure near the Nile river is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are the number of hidden passageways and the burial chamber of the Pharaoh. It is the largest single structure in the world. The four sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east and west-an incredible engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were sun worshippers and great astronomers, so computations for the Great Pyramid were based on astronomical observations.

Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines. Further scientific study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of events – past, present and future. Many of the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past. Others are prophesied for future generations and are currently under investigation. Many believe that pyramids have supernatural powers and this one is no exception. Some researchers even associate it with extraterrestrial beings of ancient past.

Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known today?

Question 36: In the second passage, the word ‘prophesied’ is closest in meaning to ____.

A. foretold

B. terminated

C. precipitated

D. affiliated

Question 37: On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations?

A. Advanced tools of measurement

B. Knowledge of the earth’s surface

C. Advanced technology

D. Observation of the celestial bodies

Question 38: What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages?

A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly.

B. To permit the high priests to pray at night.

C. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the Pharaoh.

D. To enable the Pharaoh’s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife

Question 39: The word ‘feat’ in the first paragraph is closet in meaning to ____.

A. accomplishment

B. festivity

C. appendage

D. structure

Question 40: What is the best title for the passage?

A. Problems with the Construction of the Great Pyramid

B. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops

C. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid

D. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza

Đáp án

Quenstion 1	Quenstion 2	Quenstion 3	Quenstion 4	Quenstion 5
C	B	A	B	D
Quenstion 6	Quenstion 7	Quenstion 8	Quenstion 9	Quenstion 10
C	C	B	C	B
Quenstion 11	Quenstion 12	Quenstion 13	Quenstion 14	Quenstion 15
C	B	B	C	B
Quenstion 16	Quenstion 17	Quenstion 18	Quenstion 19	Quenstion 20
D	C	B	B	C
Quenstion 21	Quenstion 22	Quenstion 23	Quenstion 24	Quenstion 25
A	A	A	C	B
Quenstion 26	Quenstion 27	Quenstion 28	Quenstion 29	Quenstion 30
D	D	D	D	D
Quenstion 31	Quenstion 32	Quenstion 33	Quenstion 34	Quenstion 35
A	D	C	A	C
Quenstion 36	Quenstion 37	Quenstion 38	Quenstion 39	Quenstion 40
A	D	C	A	D

Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 2

Môn: Tiếng Anh 10

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 3)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 1: The robot manufacturer got the outdated robots _______ for the next generation robots.

A. exchanged

B. exchange

C. to be exchanged

D. exchanging

Question 2: The better the weather is, _________.

A. the beaches get the more crowded

B. the beaches get the most crowded

C. the most crowded the beaches get

D. the more crowded the beaches get

Question 3: The doctor ________ me to spend a few days in bed in order to get over the flu.

A. advised

B. proposed

C. suggested

D. made

Question 4: She came into the room while they ________ television.

A. are watching

B. have watched

C. were watching

D. watched

Question 5: Your brother hardly talks to anyone,_________?

A. does he

B. is he

C. doesn’t he

D. isn’t he

Question 6: It is advisable that _______ a career objective at the start of his/her resume.

A. every applicants write

B. an applicant writes

C. an applicant must be writing

D. every applicant write

Question 7: He left the country _____ arrest if he returned

A. with fear of

B. in fear of

C. with threat of

D. under threat of

Question 8: We are talking about the writer ____ latest book is one of the best-sellers this year

A. which

B. whose

C. who

D. whom

Question 9: It looks like they’re going to succeed ________ their present difficulties.

A. despite

B. because of

C. even though

D. yet

Question 10: ________ a few minutes earlier, you would have got a better seat.

A. If you hadn't arrived

B. If you arrived

C. Had you arrived

D. Were you arrived

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 11:

A. coach

B. goal

C. poach

D. broaden

Question 12:

A. emotions

B. resurrects

C. stops

D. speaks

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 13:

A. enthusiast

B. preferential

C. participant

D. particular

Question 14:

A. standstill

B. answer

C. postpone

D. teammate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 15: The way the care-taker treated those little children was deplorable. She must be punished for what she did.

A. respectable

B. unacceptable

C. mischievous

D. satisfactory

Question 16: He resembles his brother in appearance very much, which makes his friends unable to recognize.

A. names after

B. calls after

C. looks after

D. takes after

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 17: I think it’s impossible to abolish school examinations. They are necessary to evaluate students’ progress.

A. stop

B. extinguish

C. continue

D. organize

Question 18: There are several different kinds of faults in reading which are usually more exaggerated with foreign learners.

A. overemphasized

B. undertaken

C. overestimated

D. understated

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 19: Wild animals ______ in their natural habitat will have a better and longer life than those which are kept in protected areas.

A. live

B. to live

C. living

D. lived

Question 20: The architects have made ____ use of glass and transparent plastic.

A. imaginative

B. imagine

C. imagination

D. imaginatively

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 21: Peter is in a restaurant. - Waiter “Are you ready to order?” – Peter “_______.”

A. Yes, I'm ready. What's the order?

B. Yes, I like giving orders to other people

C. Yes, I'd like to start with the salad, please.

D. Excuse me. Can I have the bill, please?

Question 22: Mike an Joe are talking about transport in the future. - Mike: “Do you think there will be pilotless planes?” – Joe: “________.”

A. I’m afraid I can’t.

B. What for? There are quite a few around.

C. Why not? There have been cars without drivers.

D. I’m glad you like it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 23: “I haven’t been very open-minded,” said the manager.

A. The manager promised to be very open-minded.

B. The manager admitted not having been very open-minded.

C. The manager denied having been very open-minded.

D. The manager refused to have been very open-minded.

Question 24: They believe that burning fossil fuels is the main cause of air pollution.

A. It is believed that burning fossil fuels is held responsible for air pollution.

B. Burning fossil fuels is believed to result from air pollution.

C. Burning fossil fuels is believed to have caused high levels of air pollution.

D. It is believed that air pollution is mainly to blame for burning fossil fuels.

Question 25: He missed the opportunity to study abroad. He didn’t realize the importance of English.

A. Not until he realized the importance of English did he miss the opportunity to study abroad.

B. Had he missed the opportunity to study abroad, he wouldn’t have realized the importance of English.

C. It was only after he realized the importance of English that he missed the opportunity to study abroad.

D. He hadn’t realized the importance of English until he missed the opportunity to study abroad.

Question 26: She strikes me as a very effective teacher

A. As a teacher, she always strikes me

B. My impression of her is that she is a very effective teacher

C. She is such an effective teacher that she always strikes her students

D. I make an effective impression on the teacher

Question 27: He started investigating the case a week ago.

A. He has started been investigating the case for a week.

B. He is investigating the case for a week.

C. He has been investigating the case for a week.

D. He has been investigating the case for a week ago.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 28: Fuel is any substance or material that reacts chemically with another substance or matenal to produce hot.

A. any    B. hot    C. with    D. that reacts

Question 29: Tom’s jokes are inappropriate but we have to put up with it just because he’s the boss.

A. inappropriate    B. it    C. because    D. the

Question 30: The earth is the only planet with a large number of oxygen in its atmosphere.

A. its    B. oxygen    C. the    D. number

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Once upon a time, people left school or university, joined a company and stayed with it until they retired. The concept of a job for life is now long (31)_______, and nowadays many employees find it hard to stay loyal to their companies for even a relatively short period of time. According to a recent survey, this is particularly (32 )_______ in London, where more than half of those asked said that they constantly keep one eye on other job opportunities, (33)______ they are fairly happy in their existing job. A high number of London workers say that they are always on the (34)_______, although they are content and motivated in their current position. Job seekers find that the internet (35)_______ them with a quick and easy way to find out what's available, and 53 percent said that they had applied for a job or registered with an employment agency in the past 12 months.

Question 31:

A. done

B. gone

C. finished

D. over

Question 32:

A. true

B. right

C. actual

D. real

Question 33:

A. even if

B. as well

C. just as

D. so that

Question 34:

A. look out

B. pursuit

C. search

D. watch

Question 35:

A. provides

B. serves

C. delivers

D. fulfills

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The brain of the average human weighs approximately 14 kilograms and consists of three main parts-the cerebrum, the cerebellum, and the brain stem. The cerebrum is by far the largest of the three parts, taking up 85% of the brain by weight. The outside layer of the cerebrum, 5 the cerebral cortex, is a grooved and bumpy surface covering the nerve cells beneath. The various sections of the cerebrum are the sensory cortex, which is responsible for receiving and decoding sensory messages from throughout the body; the motor cortex, which sends action instructions to the skeletal muscles; and the association 10 cortex, which receives, monitors, and processes information. It is in the association cortex that the processes that allow humans to think take place.

The cerebellum, located below the cerebrum in the back part of the skull, is the section of the brain that controls balance and posture. The brain stem connects the cerebrum and the 15 spinal cord. It controls various body processes such as breathing and heartbeat.

Question 36: What is the author’s main purpose?

A. To describe the functions of the parts of the brain

B. To explain how the brain processes information

C. To demonstrate the physical composition of the brain

D. To give examples of human body functions

Question 37: The passages states that the most massive part of the brain is the _____

A. cerebellum

B. brain stem

C. cerebral cortex

D. cerebrum

Question 38: According to the passage, which part of the brain analyzes information?

A. The cerebellum

B. The association cortex

C. The sensory cortex

D. The brain stem

Question 39: The sensory cortex _____

A. provides a surface covering for nerve cells.

B. senses that messages should be sent out to the muscles.

C. receives and processes information from the senses.

D. is where the human process of thinking occurs.

Question 40: Which of the following is true about the cerebellum?

A. It is the outside layer of the cerebrum.

B. It is responsible for balance.

C. It is located above the cerebrum.

D. It controls breathing.

Đáp án

Quenstion 1	Quenstion 2	Quenstion 3	Quenstion 4	Quenstion 5
A	D	A	C	A
Quenstion 6	Quenstion 7	Quenstion 8	Quenstion 9	Quenstion 10
D	D	B	A	C
Quenstion 11	Quenstion 12	Quenstion 13	Quenstion 14	Quenstion 15
D	A	B	C	B
Quenstion 16	Quenstion 17	Quenstion 18	Quenstion 19	Quenstion 20
D	C	D	C	A
Quenstion 21	Quenstion 22	Quenstion 23	Quenstion 24	Quenstion 25
C	C	B	A	D
Quenstion 26	Quenstion 27	Quenstion 28	Quenstion 29	Quenstion 30
B	C	B	B	D
Quenstion 31	Quenstion 32	Quenstion 33	Quenstion 34	Quenstion 35
B	A	A	A	A
Quenstion 36	Quenstion 37	Quenstion 38	Quenstion 39	Quenstion 40
A	D	B	C	B

Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 2

Môn: Tiếng Anh 10

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 4)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)in each of the following questions.

Question 1. The aircarft carrier is indispensable in naval operations against sea and shore based enemies.

A. novel

B. unneccessary

C. exotic

D. vital

Question 2. People are now far more materialistic than their predecessors years ago.

A. monetary

B. greedy

C. object-oriented

D. spiritual

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

You will make the interview process easier for the employer if you prepare relevant information about yourself. Think about how you want to present your (3)______, experiences, education, work style, skills, and goals. Be prepared to supplement all your answers with examples that support the statements you make. It is also a good idea to review your resume with a critical eye and identify areas that an employer might see as limitations or want further information. Think about how you can answer difficult' questions (4)______ and positively, while keeping each answer brief.

An interview gives the employer a (5)_______ to get to know you. While you do want to market yourself to the employer, answer each question with an honest response.

Never say anything negative about past experiences, employers, or courses and professors. Always think of something positive about an experience and talk about that. You should also be (6)______. If you are genuinely interested in the job, let the interviewer know that. One of the best ways to show you are keen on a job is to demonstrate that you have researched the organization prior to the interview. You can also (7)________ interest by asking questions about the job, the organization, and its services and products.

Question 3.

A. pressures

B.practises

C. promotions

D. strengths

Question 4.

A. accurately

B. hardly

C. rightly

D. sharply

Question 5.

A. change

B. way

C. chance

D. practice

Question 6.

A. enthusiasm

B. enthusiastic

C. enthusiast

D. enthusiastically

Question 7.

A. show

B. appear

C. conceal

D. cover

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pairs of sentences in the following questions.

Question 8. He was successful because he was determined to pursue personal goals. He was not talented.

A. In addition to his determination, his talent ensured his success in pursing his goals.

B. His determination to pursue personal goals made him successful and talented.

C. It was his determination to pursue personal goals, not talent, that contributed to his success.

D. His success lay in his natural ability, not in his determination to pursue personal goals.

Question 9. There was a serious flood. All local pupils couldn’t go to school on that day.

A. The serious flood prevented all local pupils not go to school on that day.

B. The serious flood hindered all local pupils from going to school on that day.

C. The serious flood made all local pupils from not going to school on that day.

D. The serious flood caused all local pupils not go to school on that day.

Question 10. I would willingly have lent you the money myself if only I’d known you needed it.

A. I would lend you the money willingly if I were convinced that you really required it.

B. As I realized just how neccessary the loan was to you, I naturally lent you what you needed.

C. Had I realized that you were in need of such a loan, I would gladly have lent it to you myself.

D. I was under to obligation to offer you a loan, but nevertheless did so gladly.

Question 11. The scene is set in Normandy, but most of the characters in this novel are Londoners.

A. In the novel, the action moves backwards and forwards between Normandy and London.

B. The story is about Normandy, but the leading characters are all Londoners.

C. The main characters in the novel are Londoners on a sightseeing holiday in Normandy.

D. In this novel, the story takes places in Normandy but the majority of the chracters are from London.

Question 12. We got caught in a traffic jam so we were among the last to arrive.

A. Most people got there before us as we were held up by the trffic.

B. The late arrivers all put the blame on the heavy traffic.

C. The traffic was so heavy that nearly everyone was late.

D. There was such a congestion on the roads that I thought we never would get there.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)in each of the following questions.

Question 13. When Susan invited us to dinner, she really showed off her culinary talents. She prepared a feast – a huge selection of dishes that were simply mouth – watering.

A. having to do with food and cooking

B. relating to medical knowledge

C. involving hygienic conditions and diseases

D. concerning nutrition and health

Question 14. The works of the English theoretical physicist and cosmologist Stephen Hawking helped pave the way for the framework of general relativity and theoretical prediction of black holes dynamics and mechanics.

A. terminnate

B. lighten

C. initiate

D. prevent

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.

Question 15. A professor of (A)economy and history at our university (B)developed a new theory of the relationship (C)between historical events and (D)financial crises.

Question 16. The Mediterraneam, a large sea (A)surrounded by land, is a mile (B)depth (C)on the average and more than (D)2000 miles long.

Question 17. If you record people (A)spoke a (B)disappearing language, you can (C)keep important information (D)about both the language and its speaker.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable sentence to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 18. Ken and Tom are high-school students. They are discussing where their study group will meet.

- Ken: “Where is our study group going to meet next weekend?” – Tom: “_______.”

A. Study in a group is great fun

B. We are too busy on weekdays.

C. Why don’t you look at the atlas?

D. The library would be best.

Question 19. – Peter: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?” – Jerry: “______.”

A. Yes, it’s an absurb idea.

B. There’s no doubt about it.

C. f course not. You bet.

D. Well, that’s very surprising.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Researchers in the field of psychology have found that one of the best way to make an important decision, such as choosing a university to attend or business to invest in, involves the utilization of a decision worksheet. Psychologists who study optimization compare the actual decisions made by people to theretical ideal decisions to see how similar they are. Proponents of the worksheet procedure believe that it will yield optimal, that is, the best decisions. Although there are several variations on the exact format that worksheets cam take, they are all similar in their essential aspects.

Worksheets require defining the problem in a clear and concise way and then listing all possible solutions to the problem. Next, the pertinent considerations that all possible solutions to the problem. Next, the pertinent considerations that will be affected by each decision are listed, and the relative importance of each consideration or consequence is determined. Each consideration is assigned a numerical value to reflect its relative importance. A decision is mathematically calculated by adding these values together. The alternative with the highest number of points emerges as the best decision.

Since most important problems are multifaceted, there are several alternatives to choose from, each with unique advantages and disadvantages. One of the benefits of a pencil and paper decision-making procedure is that it permits people to deal with more variables than their minds can generally comprehend and remember. On the average, people can keep about seven ideas in their minds at once. A worksheet can be especially useful when the decision involves a large number of variables with complex relationships. A realistic example for many college students is the question "What will I do after graduation?" A graduate might seek a position that offers specialized training, pursue an advanced degree, or travel abroad for a year.

A decision-making worksheet begins with a succinct statement of the problem that will also help to narrow it. It is important to be clear about the distinction between long-range and immediate goals because long-range goals often involve a different decision than short-range ones. Focusing on long-range goals, a graduating student might revise the question above to "What will I do after graduation that will lead to a successful career?"

Question 20. According to decision-worksheet theory, an optimal decision is defined as one that _____.

A. has the fewest variables to consider

B. uses the most decision worksheet

C. has the most points assigned to it

D. is agreed to by the greatest number of people

Question 21. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?

A. Proponents (para. 1)

B. Optimal (para. 1)

C. Variables (para. 3)

D. Long-range goals (para. 4)

Question 22. The word "essential" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to________

A. introductory

B. fundamental

C. changeable

D. beneficial

Question 23. The author states that "On the average, people can keep about seven ideas in their minds at once" (paragrap 3) to explain that________.

A. people can learn to keep more than seven ideas in their minds with practice.

B. most decisions involve seven steps.

C. human mental capacity has limitations.

D. some people have difficulty making minor as well as major decisions.

Question 24. The word "it" in paragraph 4 refers to________

A. worksheet

B. problem

C. distinction

D. decision

Question 25. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. A comparison of actual decisions and ideal decisions.

B. Research on how people make decisions.

C. A tool to assist in making complex decisions.

D. Differences between long-range and short-range decision making.

Question 26. Of the following steps, which occurs before the others in making a decision worksheet?

A. Listing the consequences of each solution.

B. Writing down all possible solutions.

C. Deciding which consequences are most important.

D. Calculating a numerical summary of each solution.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 27. It’s no longer possible to argue that crime is ______ with unemployment.

A. connecting

B. connect

C. unconnected

D. disconnected

Question 28. The authorities have shown no signs of _____ to the kidnappers’ demands.

A. standing up

B. bringing about

C. getting down

D. giving in

Question 29. Many of the beautiful buildings in our cities ______ be exhaust gases from cars and factories. We must do something to stop this.

A. were destroyed

B. are destroyed

C. are being destroyed

D. have been destroyed

Question 30. Residents were warned not to be extravagant with water, ______ the low rainfall this year.

A. in view of

B. with a view to

C. regardless of

D. irrespective of

Question 31. That play was ______ for her to see again.

A. interesting enough

B. too interesting

C. enough interesting

D. so interesting

Question 32. His wife is a terrible snob. She ______ almost all his friends because they have north country accents.

A. looks up to

B. looks forward to

C. look out on

D. looks down on

Question 33.Upon returning from the class, ______.

A. a letter was found in the mail box

B. a letter was in the mail box

C. he found a letter from the mail box

D. the mail box had a letter in it

Question 34. All 3 TV channels provide extensive ______ of sporting events.

A. broadcast

B. network

C. coverage

D. vision

Question 35. According to the conditions of my scholarship, after finishing my degree, ______.

A. the university will employ me

B. my education will be employed by my university

C. I will be employed by my university

D. employment will be given to me by the university

Question 36. There are many _______ in our library.

A. old American interesting history books

B. interesting old American history books

C. interesting American old history books

D. American interesting old history books

Question 37. Those letters _____ now. You can do the typing later.

A. need to type

B. need typing

C. needn’t be typing

D. needn’t be typed

Question 38. The mre he tried to explain, ______ we got.

A. the much confused

B. the many confusing

C. the more confusing

D. the more confused

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 39.

A. kissed

B. washed

C. advertised

D. slipped

Question 40.

A. casebook

B. briefcase

C. suitcase

D. purchase

Đáp án

Quenstion 1	Quenstion 2	Quenstion 3	Quenstion 4	Quenstion 5
B	D	D	A	C
Quenstion 6	Quenstion 7	Quenstion 8	Quenstion 9	Quenstion 10
B	A	C	B	C
Quenstion 11	Quenstion 12	Quenstion 13	Quenstion 14	Quenstion 15
D	A	A	C	A
Quenstion 16	Quenstion 17	Quenstion 18	Quenstion 19	Quenstion 20
B	A	D	B	C
Quenstion 21	Quenstion 22	Quenstion 23	Quenstion 24	Quenstion 25
B	B	C	B	C
Quenstion 26	Quenstion 27	Quenstion 28	Quenstion 29	Quenstion 30
B	C	D	C	A
Quenstion 31	Quenstion 32	Quenstion 33	Quenstion 34	Quenstion 35
B	D	C	C	C
Quenstion 36	Quenstion 37	Quenstion 38	Quenstion 39	Quenstion 40
B	D	D	C	D

Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 2

Môn: Tiếng Anh 10

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 5)

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The custom of paying a bride price before marriage is still a well-established part of many African cultures. In paying a bride price, the family of the groom must provide payment to the family of the bride before the marriage is allowed. The bride price can vary greatly from culture to culture in Africa. In the Zulu and Swazi tribes of southern Africa, the bride price often takes the form of cattle. In Western African, kola nuts, shells, and other goods are often used for the payment of the bride price. The actual payment of money sometimes takes place, but the payment of goods is more frequent. The amount of paid in a bride price can also vary. In modern times, the bride price is occasionally quite small and its value is mainly symbolic. However, the bride price can still be quite high, especially among prominent or highly traditional families.

There are a number of justifications used to explain the payment of bride price. The first is that the bride price represents an acknowledgement of the expense the bride’s family has gone in order to raise her and bring her up as a suitable bride for the groom. It also represents payment for the loss of a family member, since the bride will officially become a member of her husband’s family and will leave her own. On a deeper level the bride price represents payment for the fact that the bride will bring children into the family of the groom, thereby increasing the wealth of the family. This concept is reinforced by the fact that the bride price must often be returned if the bride fails to bear children.

The payment of the bride price has quite a number of effects on African society. First, the payment of bride price acts to increase the stability of African family structures. Sons are dependent on their fathers and older relatives to help them pay the bride price of their wives, and this generally leads to greater levels of obedience and respect. The negotiations between the two families concerning the bride price allow the parents and other family members to meet and get to know one another before the marriage. Finally, since the bride price must often be repaid in case of divorce, the bride’s family often works to make sure that any marital problems are solved quickly. Bride prices also work as a system of wealth distribution in African cultures. Wealthier families can afford to support the marriage of their son, and thus their wealth is transferred to other families.

Question 1. According to paragraph 1, all of the following are true of the bride price EXCEPT

A. its amount and form can vary

B. its practice is occasionally only symbolic

C. it is a relatively new practice in Africa

D. it is generally higher among traditional families

Question 2. Why does the author mention the payment of money?

A. To stress that the use of goods in the payment of bride price is most common

B. To illustrate how the practice of bride price has changed over time.

C. To demonstrate how expensive a bride price can be sometimes.

D. To demonstrate the differences in how rich and poor families pay the bride price.

Question 3. The word “prominent” in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.

A. conservative

B. important

C. religious

D. educated

Question 4. The phrase “The first” in the passage refers to the first _________.

A. marriage

B. bride price

C. payment

D. justification

Question 5. It can be inferred from the paragraph 2 that African families ________.

A. never see their daughters after marriage

B. never see their daughters after marriage

C. pay the bride price on the day of the wedding

D. place great importance on childbirth

Question 6. The author uses the word “marital” to indicate that the problems are related to ________.

A. money

B. laws

C. marriage

D. pregnancy

Question 7. Which f the following statements is TRUE?

A. Sometimes the bride’s family has to return the bride price to the groom’s for equal distributionof wealth.

B. The initial negotiations over the birde price provide opportunities for 2 families to meet each other.

C. Animals are nt an acceptable form of payment when it comes to paying the bride prices.

D. Without having to pay the bride price, African men would not respect their family members.

Question 8. Why are women often married to older men?

A. Young men lack the financial to marry.

B. The legal age for marriage is lower for women than for men.

C. Families are eager to gain the bride price from their daughter’s marriage.

D. Women live longer than men on average.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 9. The guest on our show who has won the Opera. He is the youngest professional golfer that has won this award so far.

A. The professional golfer who has won the Opera so far is the youngest guest on our show.

B. The youngest professional golfer won the Opera so far is the guest on our show.

C. The youngest guest on our show is the professional golfer winning the Opera so far.

D. The guest on our show is the youngest professional golfer to win the Opera so far.

Question 10. We arrived at the conference. Then we realized that our reports were still at home.

A. No sooner had we realized that our reports were at home than we arrived at the conference.

B. Only after we arrived at the conference did we realize that our reports were still at home.

C. Not until we arrived at the conference that we realized that our reports were still at home.

D. Hardly had we arrived at the conference that we realized that our reports were still at home.

Question 11. Mr. Brown said to me “Make good use of your time. You wont get such an opportunity again.”

A. Mr. Brown let me make use of my time, knowing that I wouldn’t get such an opportunity again.

B. Mr. Brown ordered me to make good use of my time, said that I wouldn’t get such an opportunity again.

C. Mr. Brown offered me such an opportunity so that I could make good use of my time.

D. Mr Brown advised me to make good use of my time as I wouldn’t get such an opportunity again.

Question 12. Perhaps, the violent was provoked by the fans of the visiting team.

A. It can have been the visiting team’s fans that set off the violence.

B. The fans of the visiting team must have been the people who began the violence.

C. There might have been some violence caused by the visiting team’s fans.

D. The fans of the visiting team sould have brought about the violence.

Question 13. People say that Mr Goldman gave nearly a million pounds to charity last year.

A. Mr Goldman is said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year.

B. Nearly a million pounds is said to be given to charity by Mr Goldman.

C. Mr Goldman was said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year.

D. Nearly a million pounds was said to have been given to charity by Mr Goldman.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 14. Most people indulge _________ harmless to relieve the boredom of their lives.

A. Of    B. in    C. to    D. for

Question 15. _______ they’ve already made their decision, there’s nothing much we can do.

A. Seeing that

B. on grounds that

C. asuming that

D. for reasons that

Question 16. _______, the town does not get much of an ocean breeze.

A. Locating near the coast

B. Despite location near the coast

C. Though located near the coast

D. In spite having location near the coast

Question 17. We missed the ferry yesterday morning. It ________ by the time we arrived at the pier.

A. Has already gone

B. was already going

C. had already gone

D. already went

Question 18. If the prisoners attempt to escape from prison, _______ immediately.

A. They will have caught

B. They will catch

C. they will be caught

D. they would be caught

Question 19. With its thousands of rocks and caves ________ out of the water, Ha Long Bay has won international recognition.

A. Being emerged

B. emerged

C. emerging

D. emerges

Question 20. Is that the man, _______?

A. Whom you lent the money

B. Whom did you lend the money

C. you lent the money

D. you lent the money to

Question 21. His reply was so _________ that I didn’t know how to interpret it.

A. Explicable

B. assertive

C. explantory

D. ambiguous

Question 22. Shelly disagreed with the board’s decision. She ______ and went to work for another company.

A. Pursed

B. resigned

C. abandoned

D. retained

Question 23. As an ASEAN member, VN has actively participated in the groups programs and has also created new ________ and cooperation mechanics.

A. Initiatives

B. initators

C. initations

D. initates

Question 24. Archaelogists think that massive floods could have ________ the dinosaurs.

A. Wiped out

B. laid out

C. put aside

D. taken down

Question 25. I’m going on business for a week, so I’ll be leaving everything ________.

A. On your guard

B. up to your eyes

C. in your capable hands

D. under the care of you

Read the passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the blanks.

The position of sport in today's society has changed out of all recognition. People no longer seem to think of sports as 'just a game' - to be watched or played for the (26)________ of enjoyment. Instead, it has become big business worldwide. It has become accepted practice for leading companies to provide sponsorship. TV companies pay large sums of money to screen important matches or competitions. The result has been huge rewards for athletes, some of (27)_______ are now very wealthy, particularly top footballers, golfers and tennis players. (28)_______ it is not unusual for some athletes to receive large fees on top of their salary, for advertising products or making personal appearances.

A trend towards shorter working hours means that people generally tend to have more free time, both to watch and to take in sporting activity; sport has become a significant part of the recreation industry that we now rely (29)________ to fill our leisure hours. Professional sport is a vital part of that industry, providing for millions of (30)________ people all over the world.

Question 26.

A. advantage   B. good    C. benefit    D. sake

Question 27.

A. whose    B. whom    C. who    D. that

Question 28.

A. in addition

B. however

C. in contrast

D. therefore

Question 29.

A. for    B. with    C. on    D. in

Question 30.

A. ordinary

B. mightly

C. extremist

D. abnormal

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 31.

A. commerce

B. reserve

C. burden

D. comment

Question 32.

A. accomplish

B. embarrass

C. interpret

D. volunteer

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 33.

A. approached

B. enforced

C. composed

D. embraced

Question 34.

A. sculpture

B. result

C. justice

D. figure

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 35. The police have concluded tentatively that the explosion was caused by a bomb.

A. Differently

B. hesitantly

C. certainly

D. temporally

Question 36. The palace was badly damaged by fire, but was eventually restored to its original spiendor.

A. Refurbished

B. devasted

C. strengthened

D. renovated

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 37. He was attentive as Betsy and I talked about our charity concert to help the victims of the recent floods.

A. Perceptive

B. indifferent

C. interested

D. negligent

Question 38. My father hit the roof when he found that I’d damaged the car.

A. Was over the moon

B. burst with anger

C. went with the flow

D. kept his shirt on

Mark the letter A, B, C or D in your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 39. Fruit and vegetables should be carefully (A) washed whether (B) eaten fresh (C) or cook (D).

Question 40. The Netherlands, with much (A) of its land lying (B) lower than sea level, have (C) a system of dikes and canals for controlling (D) water.

Đáp án

Quenstion 1	Quenstion 2	Quenstion 3	Quenstion 4	Quenstion 5
C	A	B	D	D
Quenstion 6	Quenstion 7	Quenstion 8	Quenstion 9	Quenstion 10
C	B	A	D	B
Quenstion 11	Quenstion 12	Quenstion 13	Quenstion 14	Quenstion 15
D	C	A	B	A
Quenstion 16	Quenstion 17	Quenstion 18	Quenstion 19	Quenstion 20
C	C	C	C	D
Quenstion 21	Quenstion 22	Quenstion 23	Quenstion 24	Quenstion 25
D	B	A	A	C
Quenstion 26	Quenstion 27	Quenstion 28	Quenstion 29	Quenstion 30
D	B	A	C	A
Quenstion 31	Quenstion 32	Quenstion 33	Quenstion 34	Quenstion 35
B	D	C	D	C
Quenstion 36	Quenstion 37	Quenstion 38	Quenstion 39	Quenstion 40
B	C	B	D	C

Xem thêm bộ đề thi Tiếng Anh 10 năm 2024 chọn lọc khác:

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• Đề thi Giữa học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 Hà Nội năm 2024 (7 đề)
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• Đề thi Giữa học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 Hồ Chí Minh năm 2024 (7 đề)

Lời giải bài tập lớp 10 sách mới:

• Giải bài tập Lớp 10 Kết nối tri thức
• Giải bài tập Lớp 10 Chân trời sáng tạo
• Giải bài tập Lớp 10 Cánh diều

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