Top 10 Đề thi Tiếng Anh 10 Giữa kì 1 năm 2024 (có đáp án) | Global Success, Friends Global, Explore New Worlds

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Top 10 Đề thi Tiếng Anh 10 Giữa kì 1 năm 2024 (có đáp án)

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Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo ...

Đề thi Giữa kì 1 - Kết nối tri thức

Năm học 2024 - 2025

Môn: Tiếng Anh 10

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(không kể thời gian phát đề)

(Đề số 1)

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I. LISTENING

Questions 1-5: There are five questions in this part. For each question, decide whether the statement is TRUE or FALSE. Tick (V) the correct boxes. You will listen to the recording twice.

	True	False
1. Family values are the foundation for children’s growth and education.
2. Traditional family values create and limit children’s behaviours.
3. Parents should take their time to share their family values and traditions with their children.
4. Family members should share meals when the family gets together to talk about the day.
5. Family values are the traditions that provide the emotional and physical basis for a better family.

Questions 6-8: There are three questions in this part. For each question, circle the correct answer A, B, or C. You will listen to the recording twice.

6. What is the girl's favourite music

A. Country music B. Rock and roll C. All kinds of music

7. Where are they going to sit?

A. In the sun B. At a food stand C. In the shade

8. What is the boy going to buy?

A. Chips and soda B. Steak and bread C. A bottle of water

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II. LANGUAGE USE

Questions 9-11: Choose the word (A, B, C, or D) which is pronounced differently in the part underlined.

9. A. applicant B. distant C. elephant D. enchant

10. A. parent B. moment C. recent D. prevent

11. A. entertainment B. independent C. different D. compliment

Questions 12-14: Match the utterance in column A with its appropriate response in column B.

A	B
12. I drink fruit juice every day.	A. Like losing the soccer match yesterday?
13. There are things I really don't want to forget.	B. That's right.
14. Is Alzheimer the disease that affects your memory?	C. That's good, it helps keep your body in better conditions.

Questions 15-18: Choose the best option A, B, C, or D for each question.

15. Jenny ___________ a beautiful dress on her birthday.

A. gave B. will give C. is giving D. was given

16. The concert was exciting at the beginning, ___________ it became boring at the end.

A. so B. for C. and D. but

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17. Jane has an appointment with her doctor this week. She ___________ the doctor tomorrow as planned.

A. will be seeing B. is going to see C. will see D. is seeing

18. I’m too tired to walk home. I think I ___________ a taxi.

A. will get B. am getting C. am going to get D. get

Questions 19-22: Choose the best options (A, B, or C) to complete the sentences.

19. Minh enjoys meeting and talking with other people. He is very __________.

A. shy B. sociable C. smart

20. The function of the heart is to ___________ blood.

A. pull B. push C. pumb

21. Her first album sold more than one million copies, so she was given the __________ certification.

A. platinum B. gold C. silver

22. Last week, I had a(n) _____________ with a music company that hires trainers.

A. competition B. contest C. audition

III. READING

Questions 11-18: Read the text about Adele and answer the questions that follow.

Adele has been one of the world's most well-known singers and songwriters in recent years. Born in North London in 1988, Adele started singing at a young age and she was mostly influenced by the Spice Girls. At the age of 16, Adele composed her first hit song, "Hometown Glory".

When she was a student at the British School for Performing Arts and Technology, she recorded three songs for a class project. All these songs later were posted on MySpace.com and became very popular. As a result, she was offered a record deal from XL Recordings after her graduation. Her first album "19" debuted at number one on the British charts in 2008.

In March 2008, she did a short tour in America and soon her international career began. In 2011, her second album, "21", came out. The music on this album was different from the soul music of "19". It was influenced by American country music, which Adele was listening to during her tour.

In 2012, she wrote and recorded "Skyfall" for the James Bond film of the same name. The song sold more than two million copies worldwide and for it Adele won the Academy Award for Best Original Song.

Since 2012, Adele has won many more awards. She has many fans including other famous singers because they admire her unique voice and her passion for music.

(Adapted from "Adele" by Learning Resource Network, 2016)

Circle the best answer A, B, C, or D for each of the following questions.

11. Adele's first song _____________.

A. was recorded at her art school

B. was influenced by the Spice Girls' music

C. was written when she was a teenager

D. was written for her class project

12. The second paragraph is mainly about _____________.

A. the songs Adele wrote for XL Recordings

B. what Adele did when she was a student

C. how Adele made her songs popular

D. how Adele began her professional music career

13. After Adele graduated from her art school, _____________.

A. she posted her songs on MySpace

B. she started singing and writing songs

C. she got a contract with a recording label

D. she started her career in America

14. The word "came out" in paragraph 3 can be replaced by _____________.

A. be composed B. be released C. be offered D. be recorded

15. The word "it" in paragraph 4 refers to _____________.

A. the song "Skyfall" B. the Academy Award

C. Adele's best song D. the 2012 James Bond film

Fill in each blank with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text.

16. While her second album was influenced by American country music, Adele's debut album featured ____________________ music.

17. More than ____________________ of the song "Skyfall" were sold all over the world.

18. People love Adele for her voice and her ____________________.

IV. WRITING

Questions 31-34: Complete the new sentence so that it means the same as the given one, using NO MORE THAN FIVE words. Write the missing words in the given spaces.

31. Many people in Viet Nam know singer My Tam.

Singer My Tam is ______________________________________ in Viet Nam.

32. In a human body, the brain controls all the organs.

All the organs in a human body __________________________________ by the brain.

33. Khoa has a strong desire for painting.

Khoa is ________________________________________ painting.

34. Did the technician repair your laptop for you?

Did you ________________________________________ by the technician?

Questions 35-40: You are a doctor and a patient asked you for advice about what to eat and not to eat to reduce stress. Write a letter of advice, using the given words and phrases. Change word forms and add more words if necessary.

Dear Tom,

You asked in your letter about the diet to reduce stress. Following is my advice. 35. First/you/avoid/certain/foods and drinks.

36. Caffeine containing foods/ alcohols/ tobacco/ believe/ increase/ level of stress.

37. In addition/ you/ not/ eat/ fast foods/ junk foods/ because/ they/ contain/ synthetic addictives.

38. Instead/ vegetables and fruits/ be/ consume/ provide/ extra protection/ against/ effects of stress.

39. Finally/ complex carbohydrates/ make/ brain/ release/ more/ mood-enhancing chemicals.

40. Hope/ you/ choose/ right foods/ and/ succeed/ in/ manage/ your stress.

Best, Jerry

ĐÁP ÁN

I. LISTENING

Questions 1-5:

1. F

2. T

3. T

4. T

5. F

Script:

Family values are the foundation for how children grow, are taught and supported. Traditional family values are usually passed on from one generation to the next, giving children the structure and boundaries to function and thrive. Family time, love, play and work give children this foundation. Take the time to share your family values and traditions with your children. Schedule family meetings together, share meals where the family gets together to talk about the day, schedule recreation and relaxation into your day-to-day life. The definition of family values is the social standards defined by the family and a history of traditions that provide the emotional and physical basis for raising a family. Work together within your family to identify and create your own family values.

Questions 6-8:

6. B

7. C

8. A

Script:

Alex: Hey Jane, there is a musical concert in the park. You want to see the band play? Jane: I am done with my homework, I can go.

Alex: You will enjoy this evening, Jane. There will be good Country music, a lot of stomping around, and definitely a lot of hollering.

Jane: It sounds fun. My favorite is Rock and Roll music; however, I have to say that country melodies can be quite enticing. Alex, what kind of music do you like?

Alex: Oh, I like all kinds of music as long as it is not Hard Rock.

Jane: Wow, look at the number of people who have already shown up for the concert. Good thing that we are here already.

Alex: Jane, where do you want to sit? In the shade or in the sun?

Jane: In the shade, please. I have been in the sun too much lately.

Alex: There is a food stand over there. Do you two want anything?

Jane: Nothing for me, thanks. I already have my bottle of water.

Alex: I want a bag of chips and a soda. Are you sure you do not want any chips, Jane? Jane: I am quite sure. Besides, my mother is cooking some steak and bread for dinner, and I want to save my appetite.

Alex: Jane, you are so lucky to have such a good cook for a mother. For the last time, do you want anything?

Jane: I am sure I do not want anything, Alex. I am doing fine.

Alex: OK, save me a seat. I will be right back.

II. LANGUAGE USE

Questions 9-11:

9. D

10. D

11. D

Questions 12-14:

12. C

13. A

14. B

Questions 15-18:

15. D

16. D

17. D

18. A

Questions 19-22:

19. B

20. C

21. A

22. C

III. READING

Questions 23-30:

23. C

24. D

25. C

26. B

27. A

28. (the) soul

29. two million copies

30. passion for music

IV. WRITING

Questions 31-34:

31. popular / well-known

32. are controlled

33. passionate about

34. have your laptop repaired

Questions 35-40:

35. First, you should avoid certain foods and drinks.

36. Caffeine containing foods, alcohols and tobacco are believed to increase the level of stress.

37. In addition, you should not eat fast foods and junk foods because they contain synthetic addictives.

38. Instead, vegetables and fruits can be consumed to provide extra protection against effects of stress.

39. Finally, complex carbohydrates can make the brain release more mood-enhancing chemicals.

40. Hope you choose the right foods and succeed in managing your stress.

Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo ...

Đề thi Giữa kì 1 - Cánh diều

Năm học 2024 - 2025

Môn: Tiếng Anh 10

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(không kể thời gian phát đề)

(Đề số 1)

I. LISTENING

Listen to the conversation between Helen and Mai. Circle the best answer A, B, or C. You will listen TWICE.

1. What did Mai do on her weekend?

A. She went to the beach with her family.

B. She went to swim with her classmates at the beach.

C. She carried out a community project at the beach.

2. How long did it take Mai’s class to collect all the litter?

A. A half of day

B. All day

C. Three hour and a half

3. How much rubbish did they pick up?

A. A ton of rubbish

B. 12 kilograms

C. A lot of rubbish

4. What did Mai’s group do after finishing collecting rubbish?

A. They assisted the other groups.

B. They had some free time to relax on the beach.

C. They took photos of their achievement.

5. What is the purpose of the project?

A. To help students relax after studying

B. To improve the marine environment as well as public engagement and awareness

C. To do charity by selling plastic rubbish collected

II. LANGUAGE FOCUS

Task 1. Fill each blank with the correct form of the verb in brackets.

1. Keep silent kids! Dad ___________ (listen) to some news on the radio.

2. We ___________ (meet) our relatives from the USA tonight. I’m so excited.

3. Alice: Look! Mom is carrying a heavy box! Tom : Oh! I _______ (help) her with it.

4. Some new solutions to the environmental problems ___________ (propose) during last Monday’s meeting.

5. They had better ___________ (choose) more exciting music for the party.

Task 2. Choose the best option to complete each sentence. Circle A, B, C, or D.

1. People usually consider men the ___________ to support family with finance.

A. character B. manner C. breadwinner D. supporter

2. The benefit from sharing the housework is increasing family ___________.

A. routine B. bonds C. value D. chores

3. In order to decrease global warming, humans should reduce the ___________.

A. human resources B. natural disasters

C. natural resources D. carbon footprint

4. Children should be taught to raise the ___________ of using paper bags instead of plastic bags.

A. energy B. awareness C. waste D. recycling

5. Tom has a talent for playing the ___________ and other musical instruments.

A. performance B. trumpet C. stage D. band

III. READING

Task 1. Read the text and write T for True or F for False

Even on a long trip, you don't need a lot of heavy suitcases. You only need two bags-a carry-on bag and a check-in bag. Here is some advice for packing them.

Carry-on bag

• Your carry-on bag should be small and light.

• The most important things for your trip (passport, boarding pass, airline tickets, money, credit cards, cell phone, keys, etc.) should go in your carry-on bag.

• You should pack valuable things, such as a laptop or jewelry, in your carry-on bag.

You should bring a change of clothes in case your luggage is delayed.

• You should also take any medicine you need in your carry-on bag.

• Bring snacks to eat on the plane. Cookies, nuts. and dried fruit are good. Don't bring chocolate-it's very messy. For long trips, bring a sandwich.

And don't bring water--you can't take it through security. You should buy some at the airport before you board the plane.

• Remember to bring a good book or your tablet.

Check-in bag

• Your check-in bag should be strong.

• Your clothes, shoes, and other everyday things should go in your check-in bag.

• Make a list to help you remember everything.

• Pack your bag early-don't pack on the same day as your trip!

• Think about the weather. Do you need a coat and gloves, or T-shirts and shorts? Choose the right clothes! You should pack your clothes inside plastic bags.

• Put your name and your hotel's address and telephone number on your bag. You should put this information inside the bag, too.

1. You need three bags to go on a trip.
2. Your carry-on bag should be big and strong.
3. Your carry-on bag is for things you need on the airplane.
4. Your check-in bag is for clothes and things you use on your vacation.
5. You should put your home address on your check-in bag.
6. You should pack your laptop in your check-in bag.

Task 2. Complete the description of Brian Skerry with the words in the box.

and

but

dangerous

interesting

The man in the photo is Brian Skerry. He is from the United States. He is a photographer (1) a National Geographic Explorer. He takes pictures of sperm whales. His job is (2) but (3). That's why he loves it. He works with scientists, (4) he isn't a scientist. He takes photos to help scientists research and learn about sperm whales.

IV. WRITING

Task 1. Unscramble the words to make sentences.

1. boring / Jean / person / is / a

2. a / is / country / rich / Singapore

3. baby / happy / my / a / is / daughter

4. books / he / interesting / reads

5. a / dangerous / the / place / is / city

Task 2. Complete the sentences with your own ideas.

1. There are many beautiful things to see, ………………………………………..

2. The street food in Rio de Janeiro is delicious, ………………………………………..

3. The bus is crowded in the morning ………………………………………..

4. The flight is six hours long, ………………………………………..

5. The tickets are expensive ………………………………………..

6. You should check the website ………………………………………..

ANSWER KEY

I. LISTENING

1. C

2. A

3. C

4. A

5. B

Script:

Helen: Hello Mai, how was your weekend?

Mai: Fantastic! I spent my lovely weekend in Vung Tau with my schoolmates and classmates.

Helen: Oh, really. You all had a wonderful beach holiday?

Mai: Actually, it was not exactly a beach holiday. Our class had a project to carry out, namely ‘Plastic Waste Free’.

Helen: Sounds interesting. What was it exactly?

Mai: Well, we must collect the waste people left on the beach. Our responsibility was to clean an area of the beach where many people visited during high season. My principal said that the project aimed to reduce plastic waste, and give a better environment for marine creatures. And I think public engagement and awareness are also the main purposes of this type of project. There are often lots of students who are quite irresponsible when they drop litter after events, so the project will help them think about their duty to the environment.

Helen: I totally agree with you. Your class did a very good job picking up litter, didn’t you?

Mai: Of course. We collected dozens of rubbish such as plastic bags, disposable bottles, and other kinds of trash. It took us half a day to do, and we were divided into small groups. Our group finished in about three hours and then we supported the other groups. It was really good teamwork. We didn’t feel exhausted because it was lots of fun.

II. LANGUAGE FOCUS

Task 1.

1. is listening

2. are going to meet/ are meeting

3. will help

4. were proposed

5. choose

Task 2.

1. C

2. B

3. D

4. B

5. B

III. READING

Task 1.

1. F

2. F

3. T

4. T

5. F

6. F

Task 2.

1. and

2. dangerous

3. interesting

4. but

IV. WRITING

Task 1.

1. Jean is a boring person.

2. Singapore is a rich country.

3. My daughter is a happy baby.

4. He reads interesting books.

5. The city is a dangerous place.

Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo ...

Đề thi Giữa kì 1 - Chân trời sáng tạo

Năm học 2024 - 2025

Môn: Tiếng Anh 10

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(không kể thời gian phát đề)

(Đề số 1)

I. LISTENING

Task 1. LISTEN to audio 1.20 and MATCH the speakers (1-4) with their correct situations (A-E), there is ONE situation that you DON’T NEED.

1/ Fred

2/ Sally

3/ Chris

4/ Celina

• A. doesn’t consider himself/herself a courageous person

• B. loves being in wild, far-away places

• C. says people who aren’t strong and fit shouldn’t try base jumping

• D. really didn’t enjoy base jumping

• E. says base jumping isn’t popular with older people

Task 2. LISTEN to audio 1.19 and WRITE T (True) or F (False) for the following statements (a-f).

a) In Alaska, there are only eagles and bears in the wild.

b) Exploring the caves in Mexico need no experience.

c) Exploring the caves in Mexico last for five days.

d) The highlight of the Philippine tour is Mount Pinatubo.

e) Mount Pinatubo erupted in 1991 and formed Lake Pinatubo.

f) Forest Trekkers offer scenery that most tourists never reach.

II. GRAMMAR

Task 1. Choose the word /phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in each sentence

1. It ____________ heavily last August.

A. is rain

B. was raining

C. rained

D. rain

2. What ___________ when I phoned yesterday?

A. were you doing

B. do you do

C. did you do

D. do you did

3. I ______________ the accident when I was waiting for the Grab taxi.

A. was seeing

B. saw

C. had seen

D. has been seen

4. While we ____________________ in the park, Mary fell over.

A. ran

B. runs

C. is running

D. were running

5. _____________________ History at 6 p.m. yesterday??

A. Are you study

B. Did you study

C. Have you studied

D. Were you studying

6. She ________ the gold medal in 1986.

A. won

B. win

C. to won

D. to win

7. There ____________ some big trees in the yard when I was 5.

A. is

B. are

C. was

D. were

8. For a long time people ________ that the world was flat and that people could fall off the edge.

A. may think

B. thought

C. are thought

D. thinks

9. Nick: “I last _______ Susan at her house two _______ ago.”

A. saw/ year

B. seen/ week

C. see/ months

D. saw/ months

10. Jack: “What did you ______ last night?” Jeremy: “I ______ on my Science project.”

A. do/ works

B. do/ worked

C. doing/ working

D. does/ works

Task 2. Complete the text with the correct past simple or past continuous form of the verbs in brackets.

It was a cold, dark evening. The snow was falling fast and an icy wind was blowing. As Rick (1)__________________(walk) home along the empty street, he saw a strange flash of light in the distance. He (2)__________________(stop). “Maybe it was just my imagnation,” he thought. Then, suddenly, the light (3)__________________(flash) again. As he was watching it, he ran towards he light when something hit his heads. Rick (4)__________________ (fall) onto the snow. A car door opened and a man (5)_________________(step) out in front of him …

III. READING

Task 1. Read the dialogue and write the answer True or False.

Amy: Are you excited about the start of school?

John: No, not really. I quite like school, but it’s not my favourite thing in the world.

Amy: We’re very different. I really enjoy learning new things. What subjects do you like?

John: I love IT because I’m interested in computers. I’m also keen on drama. I think acting is great.

Amy: Really? We’re very different that way too. I’m just too scared in front of people. What do you think of maths?

John: Actually, I really don’t like maths. I just can’t understand it. It’s terrible.

Amy: Different again! I like maths and I enjoy science a lot too.

John: OK, science isn’t bad. It’s actually kind of interesting.

Amy: Well, I’m happy we agree on something …

1. Amy likes school a lot.

2. John love IT because computers are interesting.

3. Amy is keen on drama and acting.

4. John has a negative view about maths.

5. Amy and John are totally different.

Task 2. Read and answer the questions.

BASE jumping is an extreme sport. It is similar to skydiving, but there are important differences. Firstly, the jumps are much lower – usually no more than six hundred metres. And secondly, there is no aircraft. Instead, participants jump from some kind of bridge, building or cliff. The first BASE jump took place in 1912 in New York, when Frederick Law jumped for the Statue of Liberty. In the 1960s and 70s the sport became more popular, partly thanks to Carl Boenish. He made documentaries about BASE jumping and also thought of the name. He died in 1984 while he was jumping in Norway. BASE jumping is a thrilling experience, but it is very risky too.

1. What is the text about?

2. Is BASE jumping the same as skydiving?

3. Where do participants jump from in this sport?

4. When did first BASE jump take place?

5. Did Carl Boenish make the first BASE jumping?

IV. WRITING

Read the invitation. Answer the question and write a reply (100-120 words) using the Writing Strategy (p.31) and Hint below.

Hi Nam,

I’m hosting a party to celebrate New Year eve. It's on Friday 1 January, the party will start at 5:30pm.

We will go to Nguyen Hue street to watch the musical show at 6:00pm. Many famous singers like My Tam, Son Tung Mtp, Chipu,... will be performing. I can’t wait to see them.

In the evening, we’re having hot pot at Haidilao, there is so much delicious food, drinks and services that we can try. Hit me up if you can join.

PS: If you are busy in the afternoon, you can meet me at Haidilao in district 1.

ANSWER KEY

I. LISTENING

Task 1.

1. E

2. D

3. C

4. E

Task 2.

a. F

b. F

c. T

4. F

5. T

6. T

II. GRAMMAR

Task 1.

1. C	2. A	3. B	4. D	5. D
6. A	7. D	8. B	9. D	10. B

Task 2.

1. was walking

2. stopped

3. flashed

4. fell

5. stepped

III. READING

Task 1.

1. T

2. T

3. F

4. T

5. F

Task 2.

1. The test is about BASE jumping.

2. No, it isn’t.

3. Participants jump from some kind of bridge, building or cliff.

4. The first BASE jump took place in 1912.

5. No, he didn’t.

Lưu trữ: Đề thi Tiếng Anh 10 Học kì 1 (sách cũ)

Tuyển chọn Bộ 20 Đề thi Tiếng Anh 10 Giữa học kì 1 năm 2024 tải nhiều nhất chọn lọc được các Giáo viên nhiều năm kinh nghiệm biên soạn và sưu tầm từ đề thi Tiếng Anh 10 của các trường THPT. Hi vọng bộ đề thi này sẽ giúp học sinh ôn tập và đạt kết quả cao trong các bài thi Giữa Học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 10.

Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1

Năm học 2024 - 2025

Bài thi môn: Tiếng Anh 10

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(không kể thời gian phát đề)

(Đề số 1)

I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.

Câu 1: A. picture B. adventure C. future D. mature

Câu 2: A. urgent B. surface C. hurry D. curtain

Câu 3: A. beat B. heat C. meat D. breakfast

Câu 4: A. worked B. stopped C. wanted D. forced

Câu 5: A. books B. lives C. gets D. repeats

II. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

Câu 6: If you work hard, you will eventually ______.

A. succeed B. successfully C. successful D. success

Câu 7: But her real joy was "easing human suffering". The founding of the Radium Institute in 1914 made her humanitarian wish ______ true.

A. came B. come C. to come D. comes

Câu 8: They had eaten everything ______ I arrived at the party.

A. by the time B. at the time C. whenever D. the time

Câu 9: The lift is out of order, _____ is too bad.

A. whom B. where C. who D. which

Câu 10: The old _____ our care.

A. needs B. need C. needing D. to need

Câu 11: Finally in 1891, Marie, with _____money to live on, went to Paris to realise her dream at the Sorbonne.

A. very few B. very little C. very many D. very a little

Câu 12: Do you mind ______ the cooking?

A. to do B. for doing C. doing D. do

Câu 13: The baby ______ wonderfully up to now.

A. has behaved B. behaved C. is behaving D. behaves

Câu 14: Lan: “ Good afternoon!” Nam: “______”

A. Goodbye. See you later. B. Hello. How are you?

C. Nice to meet you? D. Bye.

Câu 15: The ______ are those who can’t use a part of the body in a normal way.

A. unemployed B. mentally-retarded C. disabled D. injured

Câu 16: Jane: ______

Kate: Everybody, except for my sister because she was on business.

A. Why did your sister attend the party? B. How was the party?

C. How about the party? D. Who attended your birthday party?

Câu 17: David can make an airplane appear and disappear ______.

A. magical B. magic C. magic’s D. magically

Câu 18: His pronunciation causes me many ______.

A. difficult B. difficultly C. difficulties D. difficulty

Câu 19: This is the most ______ film I have ever watched.

A. excitement B. exciting C. excited D. excite

Câu 20: David Brown worked ______ a tourist guide from June 1999 to December 2002. He really liked his job.

A. as B. on C. for D. with

Câu 21: By the time my mother______ home, I ______ all my homework.

A. got/ had done. B. got/ did. C. got / had did. D. had got / had done.

Câu 22: Everybody______ happily. Suddenly they______ smoke.

A. was dancing/ smelt B. had danced/ smelt.

C. danced/ smelt. D. were dancing/ smelt

Câu 23: I will go to bed until I ______ all my exercises.

A. have finished B. will finish C. has finished D. am finishing

Câu 24: He often practises speaking English with the native ______.

A. speaking B. spoke C. speakers D. speak

Câu 25: Lindsay Lewis ______ research at Bristol University in the 1980s.

A. made B. had made C. had done D. did

Câu 26: The purpose of this test is to ______ the weight of the chemical element.

A. interrupt B. measure C. find out D. ease

III. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Câu 27: I often talk to my fellow peasants when we have free time.

A. farmers B. doctors C. lawyers D. teachers

Câu 28: After lunch, I often take a short rest.

A. destination B. plough C. excursion D. break

Câu 29: Linh always has a very busy timetable for the whole week.

A. schedule B. routine C. holiday D. life

Câu 30: No matter what may happen, you should never give up hopes.

A. create B. be satisfied with C. begin D. stop

IV. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

EDUCATION IN ENGLAND

Every child in Great Britain between the age of five and fifteen must (31) ______ school. There (32) ______ three main types of education institutions: primary (elementary) schools, secondary schools, and universities.

State schools are free, and attendance is compulsory. Morning school begins at nine o’clock and lasts until half past four. School is open five days a week.

(33) ______ Saturdays and Sundays, there are no lessons. There are holidays at Christmas, Easter and in summer. In London as in all cities, there are two grades of state schools for those (34) ______ will go to work at fifteen: primary schools for boys and girls between the ages of five and eleven, and secondary schools for children from eleven to fifteen.

The lessons are reading, writing, the English language, English literature, English history, geography, (35) ______ ,nature study, drawing, painting, singing, woodwork and drill.

Câu 31: A. go B. come C. attend D. arrive

Câu 32: A. is B. has C. have D. are

Câu 33: A. For B. On C. At D. In

Câu 34: A. when B. where C. which D. who

Câu 35: A. scientifically B. scientific C. science D. scientist

V. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

The first school for blind, deaf and mute children in the Tibet Autonomous Region celebrated its first anniversary on Friday. The school is built in the eastern suburb of Lhasa, capital of Tibet, and is designed to hold 200 students. It covers 20,000 square meters.The school curriculum includes Braille and sign language training, Tibetan, mathematics, writing, ethics training, physical education, arts, handicrafts, speech and walking courses. At the celebration, the audience was touched by a silent song expressed by the students with sign language. BaibaToinzhub, a 10-year-old blind child, can speak fluent Chinese and is good at singing and dancing. He told the visitors that life in the boarding school was comfortable.

Câu 36: What type of students attend the school?

A. Children who cannot see, hear, or speak.

B. Children who live in the Tibet Autonomous Region.

C. Children with a variety of disabilities.

D. Children who are visually impaired.

Câu 37: The school is located in ______.

A. the capital of Tibet B. the eastern of Tibet

C. 20,000 square meters D. the suburb of the capital of Tibet

Câu 38: The school is ______.

A. built in Tibet B. able to hold 200 students

C. 20,000 square kilometers in area D. the first boarding school in Tibet

Câu 39: Which subject is taught in the school?

A. Computers B. Physics C. Foreign languages D. Braille

Câu 40: Which of the following is NOT true?

A. Life in the boarding school is comfortable.

B. Tibet’s first deaf-mute school celebrated its 10th birthday.

C. BaibaToinzhub can sing and dance very well.

D. The visitors were touched by a silent song.

VI. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.

Câu 41: We hope to receive a message from our mutual friend, Susan.

A. Our mutual friend, Susan, whom we hope to receive a message.

B. Susan, who’s our mutual friend, is hoped to receive a message from.

C. We’re looking forward to receiving a message from our mutual friend, Susan.

D. We wish we received a message from our mutual friend, Susan.

Câu 42: Minh wishes he had taken part in the English competition last week.

A. Minh now regrets not having attended the English competition last week.

B. Minh would never mind not attending the English competition last week.

C. Minh really enjoyed attending the English competition last week.

D. Not attending the English competition last week was Minh’s big mistake.

Câu 43: We really do not want to hear your explanation again.

A. We are fed up with hearing your explanation again.

B. We would rather not ask you to give any explanation again.

C. Your explanation really makes us feel sorry.

D. We are extremely sorry for hearing your explanation again.

Câu 44: I didn’t use to like football.

A. When I was young, I liked football, but now I don’t.

B. I don’t like football.

C. Once I didn’t like football, but now I do.

D. I wasn’t accustomed to football.

Câu 45: The dictionary was so expensive that I didn’t buy it.

A. The dictionary was too expensive for me to buy it.

B. It was an expensive dictionary so that meant I didn’t buy it.

C. It was such an expensive dictionary that I didn’t buy it.

D. The dictionary was enough expensive for me to buy.

VII. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Câu 46: The stories what I’ve told you are all true.

A. I’ve told B. are C. true D. what

Câu 47: I succeeded in to find a job, so my parents didn’t make me go to college.

A. didn’t make B. to find C. go D. succeeded in

Câu 48:It often takes me about fifteen minutes to go to work from here by foot.

A. to go to work B. It often takes C. fifteen minutes D. by foot

Câu 49: Marie Curie was the first womanreceived a Doctor of Science degree from Sorbonne University.

A. Sorbonne B. received

C. Doctor of Science degree D. the first woman

Câu 50:He advised me to consider all the factors before decided to accept the job.

A. advised B. decided C. factors D. to consider

Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1

Năm học 2024 - 2025

Bài thi môn: Tiếng Anh 10

Thời gian làm bài: phút

(không kể thời gian phát đề)

(Đề số 2)

Bộ 20 Đề thi Tiếng Anh 10 Giữa học kì 1 năm 2024 tải nhiều nhất

I. Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words. (1 point)

1. A. education

2. A. death

3. A. chat

4. A. above

B. met

B. breath

B. panic

B. son

C. general

C. ease

C. fast

C. sunshine

D. extremely

D. leather

D. passenger

D. women

II. Put the verbs in brackets into the correct form. (1.5 points)

1. You (see) …………………. Nam last Sunday? – Oh, no. I (not / see) ……….….…… him for many days now.

2. Yesterday morning I............................... (remember) the answer to the question Bob.......................... (ask) me the night before, so I ............................... (phone) him.

3. You don’t need (pay) …………….…… the money back for a year.

III. Supply the correct form of the word in bold. (1.5 points)

1. We should choose a …………………………… place for our picnic next weekend. (SUIT)

2. My brother is fond of doing …………………………… research. (SCIENCE)

3. The most common …………………………. is about poor service. (COMPLAIN)

4. He lost the game because of his …………………………… (CARE)

5. Books help people to get more………………………………... (KNOW)

6. We’re so…………………………. of her for telling the truth. ( PRIDE)

IV.Read the passage and make up the questions and then answer them. (2 points)

My name is Anderson and I’ve been here just a few days. I’m from out of town. I have several friends in this city and I’ve come to visit them. Actually, I

used to live in this city many years ago. I was born here and my wife was born in a little town nearby. We both went to school and had many friends here. We’ve been in New York for more than fifteen years. We live in the suburbs and I work in the city. I have to get up early every day to go to work. I work from 9 o’clock in the morning until a little after six o’clock in the evening.

1. What / Mr. Anderson / do / here? ………………………………………..

2. Mr. Anderson / ever live / this city? ……………………………………..

3. How long / the Andersons / live / New York? ……………………………………

4. Mr. Anderson / have to work / 10 o’clock / morning? ……………………………

V. There is a MISTAKE in each of the sentences, underline the mistake and CORRECT it. (2.5 points)

1.The doctor called this morning while you slept. ……………………..

2. Get more exercise appears to be the best way to lose weight. …………

3. Let's stop to watch so much TV so that we can read or goout instead. Fountain pens first became commercial available about a hundred years ago. …………

4. She lived in London for five years before she moved to New York.…………..

VI. Rewrite each sentence, beginning as shown, so that the meaning stays the same. (1.5 points)

1. Is this the only way to reach the city centre?

→ Isn’t there ………………………………………………………………?

2. He was sorry he hadn’t said goodbye to her at the airport.

→ He regretted ……………………………………………………

3. The robber had run away before the police arrived.

→ When the police …………………………………………….. .. escaped.

4. The last time he wrote to his parents was two months ago.

→ He ………………………………………………………………

5. It took us five hours to get to London.

→à We spent ………………………………………….……………

6. Smoking is not allowed in the ward.

→ Would you mind ……………………………………………….?

Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1

Năm học 2024 - 2025

Bài thi môn: Tiếng Anh 10

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(không kể thời gian phát đề)

(Đề số 3)

I. Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words. (1 point)

1. A. background

2. A. sand

3. A. peasant

4. A. marvellous

B. atomic

B. man

B. reason

B. target

C. calculation

C. pass

C. teapot

C. warm

D. marry

D. bad

D. leader

D. guitar

II. Put the verbs in brackets into the correct form. (2 points)

1. He failed (persuade)……………………his boss to accept his project.

2. Trees (grow)..............................more quickly in summer than in winter.

3. You (ever/ see)……………….……….this film before?

4. Mary (not/ have)………………. much money. She can’t afford (go)…………..……..out very often.

5. I (already/ hear)……………………. about the accident when he (tell)…………..……. me about it.

6. The police didn’t allow the tourists (camp) ………..…………..in this wood for security reasons.

III. Supply the correct form of the word in bold. (1point)

1. The boys are in……………………for the competition next week. TRAIN

2. Through hard work and………………., all obstacles can be overcome. DETERMINE

3. My daughter has one of the biggest stamp….......................in Britain. COLLECT

4. After the……………….…death of her husband, Marie Curie took up his position at the Sorbonne. TRAGEDY

IV. Read the passage and make up the questions and then answer them. (3 points)

Albert Einstein was born on 14 March 1879 in Germany. Around 1886, he began his school in Munich. As well as his violin lessons, which he had from age six to thirteen, he also had religious education at home where he was taught Judaism. Two years later he entered the Luitpold Gymnasium and after this his religious education was given at school. He began to study mathematics, in particular the calculus, in 1891. In 1894 his family moved to Milan but he remained in Munich.

In 1895 Einstein failed an examination that would have allowed him to study for a diploma as an electrical engineer in Zurich. Indeed, he succeeded with his plan graduating in 1900 as a teacher of mathematics and physics. In 1905 he proposed the special theory of Relativity. Einstein received the Nobel Prize in 1921. He died on 18^th April 1955 in Princeton.

1. How old /Albert Einstein /when /begin/ his school?

................................................................................................................................................

2. When/ he/ begin /study / mathematics?

................................................................................................................................................

3. Einstein/ use/ work/ electrical engineer/ Zurich?

................................................................................................................................................

VI. Rewrite each sentence, beginning as shown, so that the meaning stays the same. (2 points)

1. I haven’t gone to the theatre for a long time.

The last time………………………………………………………………………………………….

2. Sue fell asleep on the sofa. Then she left the house.

Before………………………………………………………………………………………

3. Her mother spent two hours making a new dress.

It took….………………………………………………………………………….

4. The driver of the car said it was true that he didn’t have a license.

The driver of the car admitted ……………………………………………………

VII. Use the words or phrases to write complete sentences. (1 point)

1. I/ often/ go/ school/ early/ avoid/ drive/ in/ rush hour.

→ ………………………………………………………………………

2. My daughter/ interested/ work / a/ tourist guide/ because/ she/ enjoys/ work/ people.

→ ………………………………………………………………………..

Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1

Năm học 2024 - 2025

Bài thi môn: Tiếng Anh 10

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(không kể thời gian phát đề)

(Đề số 4)

PART I: CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER A,B,C OR D: (3ms)

Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest:

1. A. hand B. bank C. sand D. band

2. A. double B. govern C. punish D. control

3. A. handicapped B. visited C. decided D. wanted

4. Many people go to pagodas to...............for good luck.

A. ask B. think C. pray D. celebrate

5. He apologized............not being able to complete the poem.

A. for B. in C. on D. of

6. My teachers always encourage .................hard at school.

A. us to work B. that we work C. to work D. working

7. The police prevented us ................getting into the park.

A. on B. out of C. off D. from

8. .......................... two hours over lunch, they left the restaurant.

A. Spending B. Spent C. After spend D. Having spent

9. Some scientists say that there are enough resources to ................8 billion people.

A. raise B. provide C. distribute D. support

10. Before I started the car, all of the passengers _________________ their seat belts.

A. have buckled B. had buckled C. will buckle D. was buckling

11. How many__________ are there in the competition?

A. participative B. participants C. participates D. participations

12. I am so __________ that I cannot say anything, but keep silent.

A. nervously B. nerve C. nervous D. nervousness

13. ___________ is a holiday in Vietnam celebrated on September 2nd every year.

A. Teachers' Day B. Mother's Day C. Thanksgiving D. Independence Day

14. There was __________ shortage of food and safe water after the flood.

A. Ø B. an C. a D. the

15. Mr. John thanked me___________ helping him with the homework.

A. to B. for C. of D. on

16. _______________it was a formal dinner party, James wore his blue Jeans.

A. Even though B. Since C. Only if D. Until

17. Population growth rate_______________ in recent years.

A. has fallen B. had fallen C. have fallen D. fell

18. The children were warned ______ in the lake without an adult present.

A. not swim B. not to swim C. not swimming D. to not swim

19. It's no use_____________ ask him ______________us.

A. asking / helping B. asking / to help C. to ask/ helping D. to ask / to help

20. My handbag was stolen ____________we were playing tennis.

A. before B. while C. after D. during

21. If I had enough money , I ___________ a good dictionary.

A. would buy B. would have bought C. will buy D. will have bought

22. He ____________me that if he were me, he would do that work.

A. told B. said to me C. said D. says

23. Lan: What do you think of the General Knowledge Quiz?

Nga:______________________ . It's an opportunity to test my general knowledge.

A. Yes, that's right B. Oh, it's great C. It's not a good idea. D. Ok, I don't agree

24. Lan : "I've passed my exam." Mai : "_______________________"

A. Good luck. B. That's a good idea. C. It's nice of you to say so. D. Congratulations

PART II. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question (1 ms)

The world's population increased from 3 billion in 1959 to 6 billion by 1999, a doubling that occurred over 40 years. The Census Bureau's latest projections show that population growth will continue in the 21st century, although more slowly. The world's population is projected to grow from 6 billion in 1999 to 9 billion by 2042, an increase of 50 percent that will require 43 years.

The world's population growth rate rose from about 1.5 percent per year from 1950 to 1951 to a peak of over 2 percent in the early 1960s due to rising age at marriage as well as increasing availability and use of effective birth-control methods. Note that changes in population growth have not always been steady. A dip in the growth rate from 1959- 1960, for instance, was due to the Great leap Forward in China. During that time, both natural disasters and decreased agricultural output in the wake of massive social reorganization caused China's death rate to rise sharply and its fertility rate to fall by almost half.

25. How many people did the world's population increase between 1959 and 1999?

A. 3 billion B. 40 million C. 9 billion D. 6 billion

26. Which sentence is True?

A. In 1990, there are about 6 billion people all over the world.

B. Population growth in the 21st century was more than that in the 20th century.

C. The world's population is dramatically decreasing.

D. Population growth in the 20th century was more than that in the 21st century.

27. The word require in line 4 means...........

A. take B. pass C. spend D. have

28. The population growth rate decreased due to .............

A. early marriage B. good health care

C. reductions in mortality D. the effective birth-control methods.

29. In 1959-1960, the population growth in China..............

A. was steady B. increased rapidly C. decreased D. was unchanged

PART III. Rewrite the following sentences as suggested. (2 ms)

30. They let me choose a pencil, and I took the red pencil. (Using one or ones)

=> ................................................................................................................................

31. Because Peter didn't study his lessons carefully, he got bad marks for the Chemistry test.

=> If ..................................................................................................................................

32. "Thank you very much. You help me a lot," the boy said to his sister.

=> The boy thanked his sister ................................................................................................

33. The criminal removed all traces of his crime. He left the building (perfect participate).

=> ................................................................................................................................

34. "Could you pass me the book?" she asked me.

=> She asked .......................................................................................................................

35. "If I had a guitar here, I would sing you a song," he said.

=> He said ...........................................................................................................................

PART IV:

A. Make the complete sentences using the words given. (1ms)

36. I/ have/ birthday party/ house/ 8 p.m. / November 19th.

=> ................................................................................................................................

37. Last night/ Linda/ work/ on/ computer/ when/ she/ hear/ strange noise.

=> ................................................................................................................................

B. Translate from Vietnamese to English and vice versa:

38. Cô ấy nói với tôi rằng nếu tôi là bạn, tôi sẽ viếng thăm chùa Hương.

=> .................................................................................

39. You could try to make people feel more relaxed by introducing yourself to someone who friendly-looking.

=> ...........................................................................................................

PART V. Give the correct form of the word in parentheses to complete each sentence. (2ms)

40. Anne hoped (invite)............................. to join the private club.

41. I've never fallen in such an (embarrass)............................ situation before.

42. The most important thing we should do now is to fight against (literate).....................

43. I suddenly remembered that I (forget) ............................ my keys.

44. While I (do)............................. some shopping yesterday, I saw your friend.

45. Many people enjoy (travel) ........................... to different parts of the world.

46. What's the (populate).......................... of your country?

47. The teacher let him (stay) ..................... at home to finish the assignment.

Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1

Năm học 2024 - 2025

Bài thi môn: Tiếng Anh 10

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(không kể thời gian phát đề)

(Đề số 5)

Part A: Multiple Choice

I.Read the passage and chose the best word for each blank.

All early television was broadcast in black and white. Color television was possible but it was too (1) _____ and of very poor quality until the middle of the 1950s. Color television broadcasts began in the United States in 1954, in Japan in 1960, and in Europe in 1967.

The first (2) _____ on the moon was broadcast live on television in 1969, and now television programs are transmitted all over the world immediately through the use of satellites that transmit the signals from the earth, through (3) _____, and back to the earth.

More people now (4) _____ their news and information through television than through newspapers and radio. The development of television is one of the most rapid and exciting (5) _____ of our century.

1. A. bulky B. complicated C. expensive D. valuable

2. A. arriving B. flying C. landing D. moving

3. A. space B. atmosphere C. distance D. area

4. A. have B. get C. take D. bring

5. A. problems B. facts C. events D. Issues

II. Choose ONE sentence that is closest in meaning with the original one.

Question 6: The football match was cancelled because it rained.

A. We postponed the football match whether it rained or not.

B. We planned to watch a football match because we didn’t know it would rain.

C. Despite the rain, we watched the football match as planned.

D. The football match was cancelled because of the rain.

Question 7: I have been learning English for seven years.

A. I started to learn English for seven years.

B. I started to learn English seven years ago.

C. I have started to learn English for seven years. .

D. I didn't start to learn English seven years ago.

III. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence or replace the underlined words or phrases

Question 8: In large cases, children feel that they cannot _____ with the teacher.

A. contact B. interact C. transmit D. relax

Question 9: What makes computer a miraculous device?

A. strange B. powerful C. magical D. excellent

Question 10: A _____ is a film with factual information, often about a problem in society.

A. series B. soap opera C. documentary D. drama

Question 11: She earned a degree in Physics with flying colours

A. make less severe B. keep in mind C. developed mind D. with a very high mark

Question 12: A _____ is a film with factual information, often about a problem in society.

A. series B. soap opera C. documentary D. drama

Question 13: A: I think we should widen the roads.

B: _____. If the roads are widened, cars and lorries can get to our village.

A. That’s a good idea B. I don’t agree with you

C. I don’t think so D. I disagree with you

Question 14: What do you usually do at 17:00 p.m?

A. He has an English lesson. B. He usually plays football

C. He gets up and brush his teeth B. He has breakfast and goes to school

Question 15 : Tom: _________________

Tony: For three years.

A. How long you have lived here? B. How long have you lived here?

C. How many years you lived here? D. How far did you live here?

Question 16: Internet cafes allow you _____ your web-based e-mail account.

A. to access B. accessing C. access D. be accessed

Question 17: “Have fun, but don’t forget. You have to finish that paper.” “I know, Mom _______ it tomorrow. I already have the envelope.”

A. I’m mailing B. I won’t mail C. I mail D. I am going to mail

Question 18: We live near a special school for people who can’t hear.

A. the dump B. the deaf C. the blind D. the sick

Question 19: ______________ I told the absolute truth, no one would believe me.

A. because B. in spite of C. since D. Although

Question 20: Only one of the people _________ work in the company is qualified.

A. what B. which C. who D. where

Question 21: Henry _______________(live) in New York for ten years before he ___________ (move) to Chicago last month.

A. has lived/ move B. had lived/moved C. had lived/ has lived D. lived/had moved

III. Choose the underlined word or phrase that needs correcting

Question 22: They used to living in Finland, but now they live in France.

A B C D

Question 23: Television can make things memory because it presents information is an effective way.

A B C D

Question 24: I ‘ll give you a call if I ‘ll need some help tomorrow

A B C D

IV. Choose the word whose primary stress is pronounced differently from that of the others.

Question 25: A. paper B. famous C. rain D. channel

Question 26: A. picture B. suggest C. sunburnt D. Future

V. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

Question 27 : A. Background B. career C. second D. private

Question 28 : A. alternate B. interfere C. stimulate D. satisfy

PART B: WRITING

Rewrite the following sentences with the words given in the way that the rewritten one is closest in meaning with the original one.

Question 1: Mary saw the map. She went to the hospital.

-> After………………………………………………………

Question 2: A dictionary is a book. This gives you the meaning of words. (Connector“Which”)

..................................................................................................................

Write the correct form of the words in brackets.

Question 3: I think this game will be __________. (interest)

Question 4: They often go to Vung Tau at the weekend. (Wh- question)

……………………………………………………………………………

Rewrite the following sentences with the words given in brackets in the way that the rewritten one is closest in meaning with the original one.

Question 5: “ I’ll leave here tomorrow”, she said. (reported speech)

…………………………………………………………………………..

Question 6: Has somebody invited Lan to the party? (passive voice)

……………………………………………………………

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