Top 15 Đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng Anh lớp 11 có đáp án, cực hay

Phần dưới là danh sách Top 15 Đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng Anh lớp 11 có đáp án, cực hay gồm các đề kiểm tra 15 phút, đề thi giữa kì, đề thi học kì. Hi vọng bộ đề thi này sẽ giúp bạn ôn luyện & đạt điểm cao trong các bài thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11.

Mục lục Bộ Đề thi Tiếng Anh 11 Học kì 2

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Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề kiểm tra 15 phút Học kì 2

Môn: Tiếng Anh lớp 11

Thời gian làm bài: 15 phút

Circle the word whose bold part is pronounced differently from those of the other three.

1. A. pretty       B. get       C. send       D. well

2. A. few       B. new       C. threw       D. knew

3. A. amusement       B. surprise       C. resort       D. socialize

4. A. through       B. other       C. theatre       D. than

5. A. appear       B. address       C. area       D. agree

Circle the word whose stress is on the first syllable.

6. A. receive       B. complain       C. impress       D. monthly

7. A. typical       B. apartment       C. newspaper       D. statement

8. A. conceal       B. immense       C. before       D. fearsome

9. A. cancel       B. surprise       C. propose       D. although

10. A. holiday       B. publisher       C. example       D. difficult

Choose the best answer that is suitable for each blank or the underlined word or phrase.

11. Newspapers should _______ printing statements that they cannot check.

A. decide       B. refuse       C. avoid       D. neglect

12. If they aren’t more careful with their money, they’ll get into __________.

A. debt       B. loss       C. overdraft       D. problem

13. During the boss’s __________, his assistant took over.

A. vanishing       B. disappearance       C. absence       D. loss

14. The commander gave ___________ talk to his men.

A. encouraged       B. encouragement       C. encouraging       D. encouragingly

15. What a _____________ that your father is ill again!

A. pain       B. sorrow       C. sadness       D. pity

Đáp án

1A 2C 3D 4C 5C
6D 7B 8D 9A 10C
11C 12A 13C 14C 15D

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Giữa kì 2

Môn: Tiếng Anh lớp 11

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

       Children in the Netherlands must be at least four years old to (1)_______ primary education. Almost all 4-year-olds (99.3%) in the country indeed attend primary school, (2)________ this is not compulsory until children reach the age of. Primary school is free of charge. In most schools, children are grouped by age in mixed ability classes, with one teacher for all subjects. Primary school consists of 8 groups, thus schooling (3)_______ for 8 years. During the first two years, which is also called kindergarten, children receive an average of 22 hours of (4)______, during the last 6 years children receive an average of 25 hours per week. Schools are open 5 days a week, but children are free on Wednesday afternoon. At the end of primary school, or in group 8, schools advice on secondary school choice. Most schools use a national test to support this advice, for instance the ′Citotoets’, a test (5)_______ by the Central Institute for Test development.

Question 1. A. afford       B. enter       C. come       D. run

Question 2. A. although       B. despite       C. inspite       D. due to

Question 3. A. spends       B. lasts       C. lengthens       D. takes

Question 4. A. educate       B. educative        C. educator       D. education

Question 5. A. develop       B. to develop        C. developed       D. developing

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

       Preparation is a key to a successful interview. Does the idea of going to a job interview make you feel a little nervous? Many people find that it is the hardest part of the employing process. But it is not really true. The more you prepare and practice, the more comfortable you will feel. You should find out as much as possible about the company before you go to the interview. Understand the products that they produce and the services that they provide . It is also good to know who the customers are and who the major competitors are. Practice makes perfect. It will also make you feel more confident and relaxed. So, practice your answers to common. Make a list of questions to ask, too. Almost all interviewers will ask if you have . This is a great opportunity for you to show your keenness, enthusiasm, and knowledge.

       Make a great impression . The interview is your chance to show that you are the best person for the job. Your application or resume has already exhibited that you are qualified. Now it is up to you to show how your skills and experience match this position and this company. The employer will be looking and listening to determine if you are a good fit. He site will be looking for a number of different qualities, in addition to the skills that you possess. To make the best impression, dress appropriately; express your strengths; arrive early, by about 10 – 15 minutes; be enthusiastic; shake hands firmly; be an active listener; sit up straight and maintain eye contact; and ask.

       After the interview, follow up with a thank-you note. This is a chance for you to restate your interest and how you can benefit the company. Your best bet is to by to time it so that the note gets there before the hiring: decision is made. You should also follow up with a phone call if you do not hear back from the employer within the specified time.

Question 6. The pronoun “it” refers to ________.

A. the job        B. the interview       C. the interviewer       D. the preparation

Question 7. What does the writer advise you to practice?

A. Asking and answering questions related to the job.

B. Making products that the company produces.

C. Providing services that the company serves.

D. Meeting some customers and competitors.

Question 8. Which should not be shown during your interview?

A. Punctuality       B. A firm hand shaking

C. Being properly-dressed        D. Weaknesses

Question 9. What shouldn’t you do to make the best impession?

A. listen actively       B. a firm hand shaking

C. being properly-dressed       D. weakness

Question 10. What does the employer look at to determine whether you are a good fit besides qualification?

A. experience       B. skills       C. qualities       D. all of them

Question 11. You can show your qualifications in the _________.

A. dressing style and punctuality       B. competing with the competitors

C. resume and letter of application       D. eye contact with the interviewer

Question 12. The word “key” is closest in meaning to _________.

A. unnessesary       B. important       C. unessential       D. properly

Question 13. Which is not included in the writer's advice?

A. You should not communicate with the interviewer after the interview.

B. You should make the best impression in the interview.

C. You should write a note to say thanks to the interviewer after the interview.

D. You should telephone the interviewer for any information after the interview.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

       University Entrance Examination is very important to Vietnamese students. High school graduates have to take it and get high results to be admitted to universities. The pressure on the candidates remains very high despite the measures that have been taken to reduce the heat around these exams, since securing a place in a state university is considered a major step towards a successful career for young people, especially those from rural areas or disadvantaged families. In the year 2004, it was estimated that nearly 1 million Vietnamese students took the University Entrance Examination, but on average only 1 out of 5 candidates succeeded. Normally, candidates take 3 exam subjects, and each lasts 180 minutes for the fixed group of subjects they choose. There are 4 fixed groups of subjects: Group A: Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry; Group B: Mathematics, Chemistry and Biology; Group C: Literature, History, and Geography; Group D: Literature, Foreign Language, and Mathematics.

       In addition to universities, there are community colleges, art and technology institutes, professional secondary schools, and vocational schools which offer degrees or certificates from a-few-month to 2-year courses.

       According to Vietnam’s Ministry of Education and Training, there are currently 23 non-public universities, accounting for 11% of the total number of universities. These non-public universities are currently training 119,464 students or 11.7% of the total number of students. The government is planning to increase the number of non-public universities to 30% by 2007.

Question 14. University Entrance Examination in Vietnam is very _________.

A. interesting        B. stressful       C. free        D. easy

Question 15. The word “those” refers to _________.

A. exam subjects       B. young people       C. universities       D. examinations

Question 16. In 2004, the proportion of the students who got success in University Entrance Examination was about _________ percent.

A. 5       B. 10        C. 20       D. 50

Question 17. Which sentence refers to the University Entrance Examination in Vietnam?

A. Students find it easy to get success in the University Entrance Examination.

B. Maths is compulsory in the University Entrance Examination.

C. Students are not allowed to choose their exam subjects.

D. There are four fixed groups of exam subjects for students to choose.

Question 18. The word “non-public” can be replaced by ________.

A. state       B. goverment       C. dependent       D. private

Question 19. Which sentence is NOT true to the passage?

A. Getting admitted to universities is very important for young people to achieve success in their job.

B. High school graduates don’t have to take any exam in order to get a place in a university

C. It takes more than 2 years to complete vocational courses.

D. More than 1 million VNese students took the University Entrance Exam in 2004.

Question 20. According to the passage ________.

A. the Vietnamese government will close all non-public universities by next year.

B. the Vietnamese government does not appreciate non-public universities

C. the Vietnamese government encourages the establishing of non-public universities.

D. Vietnamese students have no alternative to continue their higher study besides universities.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 21. The situation seems to be changing minute by minute.

A. from time to time       B. time after time       C. again and again       D. very rapidly

Question 22. Now I understand why you moved out of that house.

A. I am surprised       B. it frustrates me       C. I am intrigued       D. it makes sense to me

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 23. In my judgement, I think Hem is the best physicist among the scientists of

       A        B       C

the SEA region.


Question 24. It is believed that in the near future robots will be used to doing things such

      A       B        C

as cooking.


Question 25. Passengers are required to arrive to the gate fifteen minutes before departure

       A       B       C       D


Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 26. Unlike the other Asian states, Singapore has ________ raw materials.

A. Hardly any       B. any hardly       C. hardly no       D. hardly some

Question 27. They are conducting a wide _________ of surveys throughout VN.

A. Collection       B. range       C. selection       D. group

Question 28. What do you mean, he’s watching television? He’s ________ to be washing the car.

A. Supposed       B. hoped       C. expected       D. thought

Question 29. Dick tried to place the _______ on others for his mistakes.

A. Blame       B. denial       C. complaint       D. hurt

Question 30. It _______ out that the major had brided several councils to vote for him.

A. Resulted       B. pointed       C. broke       D. turned

Question 31. It never ________ his mind that dishonesty would be discovered.

A. Crossed       B. came       C. spunk       D. passed

Question 32. Helen is ________ seafood, so she never tries these delicious dishes.

A. Allergic to       B. tired of       C. keen on       D. preferable to

Question 33. _______ the doctors know that it is very difficult to save the patient’s life, they will try their best.

A. But       B. although       C. despite       D. however

Question 34. The young girl _______ down completely on hearing of he father’s death.

A. Broke       B. fell       C. turned       D. went

Question 35. The mother ________ her son. She gives him whatever he wants.

A. Spoils       B. harms       C. ruins       D. damages

Đáp án

1B 2A 3B 4D 5C 6B 7A
8D 9D 10D 11C 12B 13A 14B
15B 16C 17D 18D 19D 20C 21D
22D 23A 24C 25B 26A 27B 28D
29B 30D 31A 32A 33B 34B 35A

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 2

Môn: Tiếng Anh lớp 11

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from others: (1 – 2)

1. A. capture       B. gather       C. fascinating       D. alternative

2. A. tomb       B. throne       C. co-exist       D. notify

Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from others: (3 – 4)

3. A. advance       B. appoint        C. nation       D. enlist

4. A. collect        B. hobby       C. enjoy       D. improve

Choose A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences: (5 – 20)

5. Many kinds of rare animals are in danger of …………

A. extinction       B. survival       C. death       D. destruction

6. At the Asian Games, friendship and …….. are built and deepened.

A. competition       B. cooperation       C. solidarity       D. entertainment

7. Your help was greatly .......................

A. appreciation       B. appreciated       C. appreciative       D. appreciating

8. Peter was the last applicant ………… by that interviewer.

A. to interview       B. interviewing       C. to be interviewing       D. to be interviewed

9. The brown hat was the one ………. Mrs. Jenny left in the class today.

A. which       B. what       C. who       D. whose

10. Jim and Paul were the two men ………… on Mr. Smith’s roof.

A. worked       B. to work       C. work       D. who were working

11. I believe there is someone ............... at the door.

A. knock       B. knocking       C. knocks       D. knocked

12. My sister has ……… toothache ……… headache.

A. not only - but also       B. either - or

C. neither - or       D. both - but

13. He is said ...................108 years old.

A. is       B. be       C. was       D. to be

14. You can see the sea in the distance, ...................?

A. can you       B. don’t you       C. can’t you       D. do you

15. Sports that people often watch are …………

A. watching sports       B. favorite sports       C. spectator sports        D. popular sports

16. Have you read any novels Shakespeare?

A. wrote       B. writes       C. writing       D. written

17. The woman .................son is studying in my college class is a famous doctor in this city.

A. whose       B. who       C. whom       D. that

18. They gave you this book on your birthday, .....................?

A. didn’t they       B. did they       C. did them       D. didn’t them

19. It was at the shop ................... she bought him a present.

A. which       B. who       C. that       D. whose

20. The activities are home based. They are organized.......................

A. outdoors       B. indoors       C. far away from home       D. at home

Find out a mistake in the following sentences: (21 – 25)

21. On Sunday mornings, I either go shopping or staying at home and read books and newspapers.

       A        B        C       D

22. Neither my sister nor my brother were at Mary’s wedding party two days ago.

       A       B        C       D

23. Do you know the man in red comes towards your sister? - I certainly do.

       A       B        C       D

24. The boy about whom you were angry is my son.

      A        B       C        D

25. Have you met my father, that you called yesterday?

      A        B       C        D

Choose a sentence that has the meaning as the one given: (26 – 30)

26. Tom doesn’t speak French. Paul doesn’t, either.

A. Either Tom or Paul speaks French.

B. Neither Tom nor Paul speaks French.

C. Both Tom and Paul doesn’t speak French.

D. Paul speaks French but Tom doesn’t.

27. I myself saw the ghost last night.

A. It am I that saw the ghost last night

B. It is I that saw the ghost last night

C. It was me that saw the ghost last night

D. It was I who saw the ghost last night

28. People say that he lives abroad.

A. It is said that he lives abroad.

B. He is said to living abroad.

C. He is said to lives abroad.

D. It is said that he is lived abroad.

29. Do you know the man working in the laboratory over there?

A. Do you know the man that working in the laboratory over there?

B. Do you know the man who is working in the laboratory over there?

C. Do you know the man works in the laboratory over there?

D. Do you know the man whom working in the laboratory over there?

30. They found the bag they left there, didn’t they?

A. The bag was found they left there, didn’t they?

C. The bag wasn’t found they left there, was it?

B. The bag they left there was found, didn’t they?

D. The bag they left there was found, wasn’t it?

Read the following passage and choose a word to fill in each gap: (31 – 35)

Before the telephone invented by Alexander Graham Bell in 1876, it was hard for people (31)……over long distances. They wrote letters to each other. It could take days or even weeks for letters to be (32)……Then people learned how (33)……telegraph messages. The messages traveled as electric signals that represented a code of dots and dashes. An operator on the other end converted the dots and dashes into a regular message. Bell’s first telephone call went over the same wires used for telegraph messages. As the telephone became (34)……and more popular, it largely replaced the telegraph. Today, our huge telephone network does many things besides carrying telephone calls. It sends copies of letters and pictures from one machine to another, called a (35)…………machine…

31. A. to communicate       B. communicate       C. communicating       D. communicated

32. A. seen       B. arrived       C. delivered       D. coming

33. A. to call       B. to send       C. to see       D. to leave

34. A. more       B. less       C. better       D. much

35. A. phone       B. telegraph       C. printing       D. fax

Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answers: (36 – 40)

Traveling is one of the most popular forms of recreation in the USA. Most American employees receive an annual vacation with pay, and it is a good time off for traveling. Traveling within the country is popular because foreign travel generally takes more time and money. However, Americans who wish to vacation outside the USA are free to go almost anywhere. Obtaining a passport is a routine matter. Every year about 13 million Americans travel abroad. The most popular vacation periods are during the summer and during the two-week school break on the Christmas and New Year’s holidays. These periods are also the most crowded and generally the most expensive time to travel, so people who can adjust their schedules sometimes choose vacation in the autumn. American vacationers often travel by car. Most families have a car, and those who do not have a car can rent one. Cars are usually the economical way to travel, especially for the families. It is also fairly fast and convenient. Excellent highways connect the major cities. They enable vacationers to travel at an almost steady speed of 55 to 65 miles an hour. Tourists that want to travel faster often fly to their destination and then rent a car to go around when they get there.

36. The reading text is about ………………..

A. Christmas and New Year       B going abroad

C. traveling in USA       D. renting a car for traveling

37. Traveling in the ……………. is the least expensive.

A. spring       B. summer       C. winter       D. autumn

38. Which sentence is NOT correct?

A. Most Americans like traveling.

B. Most American people travel abroad every year.

C. There is a two-week break on the Christmas and the New Year’s holidays.

D. It is difficult to obtain a passport in the USA.

39. The word one in line 7 of the text refers to ……………….

A. a vacationer       B. a family       C. a car       D. a holiday

40. Traveling by car is ……………..

A. cheap       B. very expensive

C. not appreciated       D. not suitable for familie

Đáp án

1D 2A 3C 4B 5A 6C 7B 8D 9A 10D
11B 12A 13D 14C 15C 16D 17A 18A 19C 20D
21C 22B 23B 24B 25C 26B 27D 28A 29B 30D
31A 32C 33B 34A 35D 36C 37D 38B 39C 40A

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