Top 5 Đề thi Học kì 1 Tiếng Anh lớp 12 mới năm 2020 - 2021 có đáp án



Phần dưới là danh sách Top 5 Đề thi Học kì 1 Tiếng Anh lớp 12 mới năm 2020 - 2021 có đáp án. Hi vọng bộ đề thi này sẽ giúp bạn ôn luyện & đạt điểm cao trong các bài kiểm tra, bài thi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 12.

Mục lục Đề thi Học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 12 mới

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Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 12 mới Học kì 1 có đáp án (Đề số 1)

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Children in the Netherlands must be at least four years old to (1)_______ primary education. Almost all 4-year-olds (99.3%) in the country indeed attend primary school, (2)________ this is not compulsory until children reach the age of. Primary school is free of charge. In most schools, children are grouped by age in mixed ability classes, with one teacher for all subjects. Primary school consists of 8 groups, thus schooling (3)_______ for 8 years. During the first two years, which is also called kindergarten, children receive an average of 22 hours of (4)______, during the last 6 years children receive an average of 25 hours per week. Schools are open 5 days a week, but children are free on Wednesday afternoon. At the end of primary school, or in group 8, schools advice on secondary school choice. Most schools use a national test to support this advice, for instance the ′Citotoets’, a test (5)_______ by the Central Institute for Test development.

Question 1.

A. afford

B. enter

C. come

D. run

Question 2.

A. although

B. despite

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C. inspite

D. due to

Question 3.

A. spends

B. lasts

C. lengthens

D. takes

Question 4.

A. educate

B. educative

C. educator

D. education

Question 5.

A. develop

B. to develop

C. developed

D. developing

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Preparation is a key to a successful interview. Does the idea of going to a job interview make you feel a little nervous? Many people find that it is the hardest part of the employing process. But it is not really true. The more you prepare and practice, the more comfortable you will feel. You should find out as much as possible about the company before you go to the interview. Understand the products that they produce and the services that they provide . It is also good to know who the customers are and who the major competitors are. Practice makes perfect. It will also make you feel more confident and relaxed. So, practice your answers to common. Make a list of questions to ask, too. Almost all interviewers will ask if you have . This is a great opportunity for you to show your keenness, enthusiasm, and knowledge.

Make a great impression . The interview is your chance to show that you are the best person for the job. Your application or resume has already exhibited that you are qualified. Now it is up to you to show how your skills and experience match this position and this company. The employer will be looking and listening to determine if you are a good fit. He site will be looking for a number of different qualities, in addition to the skills that you possess. To make the best impression, dress appropriately; express your strengths; arrive early, by about 10 – 15 minutes; be enthusiastic; shake hands firmly; be an active listener; sit up straight and maintain eye contact; and ask.

After the interview, follow up with a thank-you note. This is a chance for you to restate your interest and how you can benefit the company. Your best bet is to by to time it so that the note gets there before the hiring: decision is made. You should also follow up with a phone call if you do not hear back from the employer within the specified time.

Question 6. The pronoun “it” refers to ________.

A. the job

B. the interview

C. the interviewer

D. the preparation

Question 7. What does the writer advise you to practice?

A. Asking and answering questions related to the job.

B. Making products that the company produces.

C. Providing services that the company serves.

D. Meeting some customers and competitors.

Question 8. Which should not be shown during your interview?

A. Punctuality

B. A firm hand shaking

C. Being properly-dressed

D. Weaknesses

Question 9. What shouldn’t you do to make the best impession?

A. listen actively

B. a firm hand shaking

C. being properly-dressed

D. weakness

Question 10. What does the employer look at to determine whether you are a good fit besides qualification?

A. experience

B. skills

C. qualities

D. all of them

Question 11. You can show your qualifications in the _________.

A. dressing style and punctuality

B. competing with the competitors

C. resume and letter of application

D. eye contact with the interviewer

Question 12. The word “key” is closest in meaning to _________.

A. unnessesary

B. important

C. unessential

D. properly

Question 13. Which is not included in the writer's advice?

A. You should not communicate with the interviewer after the interview.

B. You should make the best impression in the interview.

C. You should write a note to say thanks to the interviewer after the interview.

D. You should telephone the interviewer for any information after the interview.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

University Entrance Examination is very important to Vietnamese students. High school graduates have to take it and get high results to be admitted to universities. The pressure on the candidates remains very high despite the measures that have been taken to reduce the heat around these exams, since securing a place in a state university is considered a major step towards a successful career for young people, especially those from rural areas or disadvantaged families. In the year 2004, it was estimated that nearly 1 million Vietnamese students took the University Entrance Examination, but on average only 1 out of 5 candidates succeeded. Normally, candidates take 3 exam subjects, and each lasts 180 minutes for the fixed group of subjects they choose. There are 4 fixed groups of subjects: Group A: Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry; Group B: Mathematics, Chemistry and Biology; Group C: Literature, History, and Geography; Group D: Literature, Foreign Language, and Mathematics.

In addition to universities, there are community colleges, art and technology institutes, professional secondary schools, and vocational schools which offer degrees or certificates from a-few-month to 2-year courses.

According to Vietnam’s Ministry of Education and Training, there are currently 23 non-public universities, accounting for 11% of the total number of universities. These non-public universities are currently training 119,464 students or 11.7% of the total number of students. The government is planning to increase the number of non-public universities to 30% by 2007.

Question 14. University Entrance Examination in Vietnam is very _________.

A. interesting

B. stressful

C. free

D. easy

Question 15. The word “those” refers to _________.

A. exam subjects

B. young people

C. universities

D. examinations

Question 16. In 2004, the proportion of the students who got success in University Entrance Examination was about _________ percent.

A. 5     B. 10     C. 20    D. 50

Question 17. Which sentence refers to the University Entrance Examination in Vietnam?

A. Students find it easy to get success in the University Entrance Examination.

B. Maths is compulsory in the University Entrance Examination.

C. Students are not allowed to choose their exam subjects.

D. There are four fixed groups of exam subjects for students to choose.

Question 18. The word “non-public” can be replaced by ________.

A. state

B. goverment

C. dependent

D. private

Question 19. Which sentence is NOT true to the passage?

A. Getting admitted to universities is very important for young people to achieve success in their job.

B. High school graduates don’t have to take any exam in order to get a place in a university

C. It takes more than 2 years to complete vocational courses.

D. More than 1 million VNese students took the University Entrance Exam in 2004.

Question 20. According to the passage ________.

A. the Vietnamese government will close all non-public universities by next year.

B. the Vietnamese government does not appreciate non-public universities

C. the Vietnamese government encourages the establishing of non-public universities.

D. Vietnamese students have no alternative to continue their higher study besides universities.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 21. The situation seems to be changing minute by minute.

A. from time to time

B. time after time

C. again and again

D. very rapidly

Question 22. Now I understand why you moved out of that house.

A. I am surprised

B. it frustrates me

C. I am intrigued

D. it makes sense to me

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 23. In my judgement, I think Hem is the best physicist among the scientists of the SEA region.

A.I think

B.the best

C.among

D.the SEA region.

Question 24. It is believed that in the near future robots will be used to doing things such as cooking.

A.It is believed

B.in the near future

C.be used to doing

D.cooking.

Question 25. Passengers are required to arrive to the gate fifteen minutes before departure time.

A.are required

B.arrive to

C.before

D.departure time

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 26. Unlike the other Asian states, Singapore has ________ raw materials.

A. Hardly any

B. any hardly

C. hardly no

D. hardly some

Question 27. They are conducting a wide _________ of surveys throughout VN.

A. Collection

B. range

C. selection

D. group

Question 28. What do you mean, he’s watching television? He’s ______ to be washing the car.

A. Supposed

B. hoped

C. expected

D. thought

Question 29. Dick tried to place the _______ on others for his mistakes.

A. Blame

B. denial

C. complaint

D. hurt

Question 30. It _______ out that the major had brided several councils to vote for him.

A. Resulted

B. pointed

C. broke

D. turned

Question 31. It never ________ his mind that dishonesty would be discovered.

A. Crossed

B. came

C. spunk

D. passed

Question 32. Helen is ________ seafood, so she never tries these delicious dishes.

A. Allergic to

B. tired of

C. keen on

D. preferable to

Question 33. _______ the doctors know that it is very difficult to save the patient’s life, they will try their best.

A. But

B. although

C. despite

D. however

Question 34. The young girl _______ down completely on hearing of he father’s death.

A. Broke

B. fell

C. turned

D. went

Question 35. The mother ________ her son. She gives him whatever he wants.

A. Spoils

B. harms

C. ruins

D. damages

Question 36. _________, he couldn’t finish that test in 60 minutes.

A. As the boy was intelligent

B. As intelligent the boy was

C. intelligent as the boy was

D. intelligent as was the boy

Question 37. The concert didn’t come ________ our expectations.

A. Up against

B. up with

C. up to

D. round

Question 38. – “I can’t see the stage very well from here.” – “________.”

A. Neither can’t I.

B. So do I

C. Neither I can

D. I can’t either

Question 39. – “Do you mind if I use your phone?” – “__________.”

A. Not at all. Help yourself.

B. Yes, certainly.

C. Sorry, I have no idea.

D. You can say that again.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 40. Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the same region.

A. Stay unchanged

B. restrain

C. fluctuate

D. remain unstable

Question 41. We’d better speed up if we want to get there in time.

A. Turn down

B. slow down

C. put down

D. lie down

Mark the letter A,B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 42. If I had been home, everything would not have been that dramatic.

A. When I am home, everythings goes right.

B. Things would not be dramatized with my pressure.

C. Things weren’t worse because I was not home.

D. Everything goes wrong when I am not at home.

Question 43. Majoring in IT was not my priority.

A. My boss is not major in IT.

B. I liked something else more than IT.

C. I preferred IT to other courses.

D. I am not interested in IT.

Question 44. Our system is that the losing side pays for the hire of the basketball court.

A. If our side loses, then we will have to pay for the hire of the basketball court.

B. With us it’s the winners, not the losers who have to pay for the hire of the basketball court.

C. The losers obviously expect the winning side to pay for the hire of the basketball court.

D. The way we do it is, whichever side loses, that side pays for the hire of the basketball court.

Question 45. Smoking is an extremely harmful habit. You should give it up immediately.

A. You should give up smoking immediately and you will fall into an extremely harmful habit.

B. When you give up smoking immediately, you will affect your health with this harmful habit.

C. Stop your smoking immediately so it will become one of your extremely harmful habits.

D. As smoking is an extremly harmful habit, you should give it up immediately.

Question 46. He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot.

A. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much.

B. His behavior was very strange, that surprised me most.

C. I was almost not surprised by his strange behavior.

D. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 47.

A. physical

B. achievement

C. goverment

D. rational

Question 48.

A. university

B. applications

C. technology

D. entertainment

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 49.

A. average

B. indicate

C. application

D. grade

Question 50.

A. laughed

B. weighed

C. helped

D. missed

Đáp án

1B 2A 3B 4D 5C
6B 7A 8D 9D 10D
11C 12B 13A 14B 15B
16C 17D 18D 19D 20C
21D 22D 23A 24C 25B
26A 27B 28D 29B 30D
31A 32A 33B 34B 35A
36C 37B 38D 39A 40A
41B 42B 43B 44D 45D
46A 47B 48C 49C 50B

Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 12 mới Học kì 1 có đáp án (Đề số 2)

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1.

A. campus

B. bamboo

C. rainfall

D. wildlife

Question 2.

A. applicant

B. maximum

C. counterpart

D. inflation

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3.

A. groove

B. kangaroo

C. goose

D. flood

Question 4.

A. concentrates

B. develops

C. considers

D. paragraphs

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. If people drove more carefully, there______________ so many accidents on the road.

A. would not be

B. will not be

C. wouldn’t have been

D. aren’t

Question 6. When he arrived at the station, his train

.

A. had already leaved

B. had already left

C. had had left

D. had already leaving

Question 7. This is the second time she's been here, ______________?

A. isn't this

B. has she

C. isn't it

D. hasn't she

Question 8. She expected _______ her boyfriend at the station but he wasn’t there.

A. to be meeting

B. meeting

C. to be met

D. to meet

Question 9. He ______ to the doctor after the accident, but he continued to play instead.

A. must have gone

B. needn’t have gone

C. shouldn’t have gone

D. should have gone

Question 10. The pianist ______ at the concert last night is internationally famous.

A. playing

B. played

C. who plays

D. whom played

Question 11. Taking part in the Advanced Engineering project gave him an opportunity to use his ______ to help his career.

A. creative

B. creativity

C. create

D. creatively

Question 12. Mary enjoys reading ________, adventure, and whatever else she can either buy or borrow.

A. romance

B. romantic

C. romanticize

D. romanticism

Question 13. ______ about gene-related diseases has increased is welcome news.

A. Scientific knowledge

B. It was scientific knowledge

C. Though scientific knowledge

D. That scientific knowledge

Question 14. Knocking on closed doors before entering can be a great way for children to practice _________ behaviors.

A. respecting

B. respected

C. respectful

D. respective

Question 15. If you want a flat in the centre of the city you have to pay through the ________ for it.

A. teeth

B. back of your head

C. nose

D. arm

Question 16. The H5N1 infected patients have to _______ others to prevent the virus from spreading

A. Take care of

B. get away

C. look after

D. stay away from

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 17. The teacher gave some hints on what could come out for the examination.

A. effects

B. symptoms

C. suggestions

D. demonstrations

Question 18. In the world of models, every model girl tries every trick in the book to stop others from succeeding.

A. every available method

B. all kinds of tricks

C. every story plot

D. all styles of writing

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19. The consequences of the typhoon were disastrous due to the lack of precautionary measures.

A. physical

B. severe

C. beneficial

D. damaging

Question 20. I’m sorry I can’t come out this weekend – I’m up to my ears in work.

A. very busy

B. very bored

C. very scared

D. very idle

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 21. Hoa is asking Hai, who is sitting at a corner of the room, seeming too shy.

         - Hoa: “Why aren’t you taking part in our activities? _______” - Hai: “Yes. I can. Certainly.”

A. Could you please show me how to get to the nearest post office?

B. Shall I take your hat off?

C. Can I help you?

D. Can you help me with these decorations?

Question 22. Mary and Nhung are drinking coffee and they are discussing about their projects

         - Mary: “ How is your project going, Nhung?” - Nhung: “……………….”

A. I’m working with John and Sally

B. What? Is it going to finish soon?

C. Great! Couldn’t be better.

D. Do you really want to go?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.

Every year, thousands of people travel to Britain in order to improve their standard of English. For many, however, this can be a painful experience due to the fact that it involves (23) _______ a strange school, staying in sometimes unpleasant accommodation and living in an unfamiliar culture. One answer to these (24) _______ is the Homestay method. With this, students are each assigned a teacher suited to their language requirements and interests. As well as giving individual tuition, the teacher provides the student (25 ) _______ information about what activities are available locally and takes them on trips. Students get between ten and twenty hours of tuition a week and are also expected to join in the family’s daily activities. The students speak English at all times and therefore learn (26) _______ to use the language in everyday situations. Homestay programmes usually last for up to four weeks. (27) _______ costs are higher than of regular language schools, students can feel confident that they will be receiving top-class language teaching in a safe and pleasant environment.

Question 23.

A. studying

B. attending

C. going

D. learning

Question 24.

A. problems

B. solutions

C. methods

D. ways

Question 25.

A. to

B. for

C. with

D. about

Question 26.

A. what

B. that

C. which

D. how

Question 27.

A. Although

B. Despite

C. Because

D. Since

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

In 1972, a century after the first national park in the United States was established at Yellowstone, legislation was passed to create the National Marine Sanctuaries Program. The intent of this legislation was to provide protection to selected coastal habitats similar To that existing for land areas designated as national parks. The designation of an areas a marine sanctuary indicates that it is a protected area, just as a national park is. People are permitted to visit and observe there, but living organisms and their environments may not be harmed or removed.

The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is administered by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, a branch of the United States Department of Commerce. Initially, 70 sites were proposed as candidates for sanctuary status. Two and a half decades later, only fifteen sanctuaries had been designated, with half of these established after 1978. They range in size from the very small (less than I square kilometer) Fagatele Bay National Marine Sanctuary in American Samoa to the Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary in California, extending over 15,744 square kilometers.

The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is a crucial part of new management practices in which whole communities of species, and not just individual species, are offered some degree of protection from habitat degradation and overexploitation. Only in this way can a reasonable degree of marine species diversity be maintained in a setting that also maintains the natural interrelationships that exist among these species.

Several other types of marine protected areas exist in the United States and other countries. The National Estuarine Research Reserve System, managed by the United States government, includes 23 designated and protected estuaries. Outside the United States, marine protected-area programs exist as marine parks, reserves, and preserves. Over 100 designated areas exist around the periphery of the Caribbean Sea. Others range from the well-known Australian Great Barrer Reef Marine Park to lesser-known parks in countries such as Thailand and Indonesia, where tourism is placing growing pressures on fragile coral reef systems. As state, national, and international agencies come to recognize the importance of conserving marine biodiversity, marine projected areas. whether as sanctuaries, parks, or estuarine reserves, will play an increasingly important role in preserving that diversity.

Question 28. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Differences among marine parks, sanctuaries, and reserves

B. Various marine conservation programs

C. International agreements on coastal protection

D. Similarities between land and sea protected environments

Question 29. The word “intent” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _______

A. repetition

B. approval

C. goal

D. revision

Question 30. The word “administered” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______

A. managed

B. recognized

C. opposed

D. justified

Question 31. The passage mentions which of the following as a threat to marine areas outside the United States?

A. Limitations in financial support

B. The use of marine species as food

C. Variability of the climate

D. Increases in tourism

Question 32. The word “periphery” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______

A. depth

B. landmass

C. warm habitat

D. outer edge

Question 33. According to the passage, when was the National Marine Sanctuaries Program established?

A. Before 1972

B. After 1987

C. One hundred years before national parks were established

D. One hundred years after Yellowstone National Park was established

Question 34. According to the passage, all of the following are achievements of the National Marine Sanctuaries Program EXCEPT

A. the discovery of several new marine organisms

B. the preservation of connections between individual marine species

C. the protection of coastal habitats

D. the establishment of areas where the public can observe marine life

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

Improving girls’ educational levels has been demonstrated to have clear impacts on the health and economic future of young women, which in turn improves the prospects of their entire community. The infant mortality rate of babies whose mothers have received primary education is half that of children whose mothers are illiterate. In the poorest countries of the world, 50% of girls do not attend secondary school. Yet, research shows that every extra year of school for girls increases their lifetime income by 15%.

Improving female education, and thus the earning potential of women, improves the standard of living for their own children, as women invest more of their income in their families than men do. Yet, many barriers to education for girls remain. In some African countries, such as Burkina Faso, girls are unlikely to attend school for such basic reasons as a lack of private latrine facilities for girls.

Higher attendance rates of high schools and university education among women, particularly in developing countries, have helped them make inroads to professional careers with better-paying salaries and wages. Education increases a woman's (and her partner and the family's) level of health and health awareness. Furthering women's levels of education and advanced training also tends to lead to later ages of initiation of sexual activity and first intercourse, later age at first marriage, and later age at first childbirth, as well as an increased likelihood to remain single, have no children, or have no formal marriage and alternatively, have increasing levels of long-term partnerships. It can lead to higher rates of barrier and chemical contraceptive use (and a lower level of sexually transmitted infections among women and their partners and children), and can increase the level of resources available to women who divorce or are in a situation of domestic violence. It has been shown, in addition, to increase women's communication with their partners and their employers, and to improve rates of civic participation such as voting or the holding of office.

Question 35. What can be the best title of the reading passage?

A. Education and Women's Empowerment

B. Woman's Rights to Lifelong Education

C. Female Education and Social Benefit

D. Education and Violence Against Women

Question 36. Which of the following statements is true according to the first paragraph

A. Many children in Asia have died because of their mother's ignorance

B. Children whose mother are illiterate are unable to grow healthily

C. The higher their education level is, the more money women ear

D. It is their husbands who make women improve their education level

Question 37. It is implied in the first paragraph that ______

A. the husband in a family takes little responsibility in rearing the children

B. there are numerous reasons for women not to come to class worldwide

C. the children's standard of living largely depends on their mother's income

D. the mother in a family makes every effort to raise the children effectively

Question 38. The word "barriers" in the passage is closest in meaning to _____

A. challenges

B. problems

C. difficulties

D. limits

Question 39. The phrase "make inroads into" in the passage can be best replaced with ______

A. make progress in

B. succeed in taking

C. celebrate achievement in

D. take the chance in

Question 40. According to the passage, furthering women's levels of education and advanced training does not result in

A. an increased likelihood to remain single among women

B. higher rates of barrier and chemical contraceptive use

C. improved rates of civic participation among women

D. an increased level of health awareness for the husbands

Đáp án

1A 2D 3D 4C 5A
6B 7C 8D 9D 10A
11B 12A 13D 14C 15C
16D 17C 18A 19C 20D
21D 22C 23B 24A 25C
26D 27A 28B 29C 30A
31D 32D 33D 34A 35C
36C 37B 38C 39B 40D

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