Đề thi Học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 12 mới năm 2024 có đáp án (5 đề)

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Đề thi Học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 12 mới năm 2024 có đáp án (5 đề)

Phần dưới là danh sách Đề thi Học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 12 mới năm 2024 có đáp án (5 đề). Hi vọng bộ đề thi này sẽ giúp bạn ôn luyện & đạt điểm cao trong các bài thi Tiếng Anh 12.

Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 1

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 1)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1.

A. finished

B. escaped

C. damaged

D. promised

Question 2.

A. clothes

B. couches

C. bosses

D. boxes

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3.

A. signal

B. instance

C. airport

D. mistake

Question 4.

A. chemistry

B. decision

C. statistics

D. attention

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5. We can use either verbal or nonverbal forms of communication.

A. using gesture

B. using speech

C. using verbs

D. using facial expressions

Question 6. We are a very close- knit family.

A. need each other

B. are close to each other

C. have very close relationship with each other

D. are polite to each other

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7. They believe that life will be far better than it is today, so they tend to look on the bright side in any circumstance.

A. be confident

B. be smart

C. be optimistic

D. be pessimistic

Question 8. English is a compulsory subject in most of the schools in Vietnam.

A. required

B. optional

C. paid

D. dependent

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to show the underlined part that need correction in each of the following sentences.

Question 9. Today the (A) number of people (B) whom enjoy winter sports (C) is almost double (D) that of twenty years ago.

Question 10. There (A) are probably (B) around 3,000 languages (C) speaking in (D) the world.

Question 11. (A) The novelist Shirley Hazzard is noted (B) for the insight, poetic style, and (C) sensitive she (D) demonstrates in her works.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 12. Two friends Diana and Anne are talking with each other about their shopping.

~ Diana: “Look at this catalog, Anne. I think I want to get this red blouse.”

~ Anne: “.....”

A. Don’t you have one like this in blue?

B. That’s a long way to go, dear.

C. No, thank you.

D. I’ll go myself, then.

Question 13. Henry is talking to his mother.

~ Henry: “I’ve passed my driving test.”

~ His mother: “..............”

A. All right.

B. That’s too bad.

C. That’s a good idea.

D. Congratulations!

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions.

Question 14. In many families, the most important decisions are.......by many women.

A. done

B. made

C. arrived

D. given

Question 15. Each of us must take......for our own actions.

A. ability

B. responsibility

C. possibility

D. probability

Question 16. Thanks to the women's liberation, women can take part in......activities.

A. social

B. society

C. socially

D. socialize

Question 17. I know you feel bad now, Tommy, but try to put it out of your mind. By the time you’re an adult, you........all about it.

A. are forgetting

B. will have forgotten

C. forget

D. will be forgetting

Question 18........., Nam Cao is a realistic writer, but he still used a lot of romance in his stories.

A. On my part

B. On the whole

C. On the contrary

D. On the other hand

Question 19. Kate asked Janet where......the previous Sunday.

A. has she been

B. had she been

C. she had been

D. she has been

Question 20. We live in a large house in.....middle of the village.

A. a

B. an

C. the

D. No article

Question 21. If Tom.......an alarm, the thieves wouldn’t have broken into his house.

A. installs

B. had installed

C. have installed

D. installed

Question 22. My English teacher, Mrs. Jane, was the person......I had great respect.

A. for whom

B. whom

C. for who

D. that

Question 23. Whole villages were.........by the floods last year.

A. come up

B. looked after

C. taken out

D. wiped out

Question 24. When my mother is busy preparing dinner, my father often gives her a hand.....the housework.

A. on

B. with

C. for

D. about

Question 25. UNESCO was established to encourage collaboration......nations in the areas......education, science, culture, and communication.

A. between - in

B. among - of

C. between - of

D. among - in

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26. ‘Sorry, we’re late. It took us ages to look for a parking place,’ said John.

A. John said that he was late because he had spent a lot of time finding a parking place.

B. John finally found a parking place after a long time searching even though they were late.

C. John apologized for being late because it took them much time to find a parking place.

D. John said sorry for being late because he had to try his best to look for a parking place.

Question 27. People say that he won a lot of money on the Vietlott.

A. He was said that he won a lot of money on the Vietlott.

B. He is said to win a lot of money on the Vietlott.

C. He won a lot of money on the Vietlott as people said.

D. He is said to have won a lot of money on the Vietlott.

Question 28. I have never played golf before.

A. This is the first time I have ever played golf.

B. I used to play golf but I gave it up already.

C. It is the last time I played golf.

D. It is the first time I had played golf.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29. My grandparents’ lake house was built in 1953. It was completely destroyed by the forest fire.

A. My grandparents’ lake house was built in 1953; however, completely destroying the forest fire.

B. My grandparents’ lake house, which was built in 1953, was completely destroyed by the forest fire.

C. My grandparents’ lake house was built in 1953, so it was completely destroyed by the forest fire.

D. The forest fire destroyed my grandparents’ lake house was built in 1953.

Question 30. Her living conditions were difficult. However, she studied very well.

A. Difficult as her living conditions, she studied very well.

B. She studied very well thanks to the fact that she lived in difficult conditions.

C. She studied very well in spite of her difficult living conditions.

D. Although she lived in difficult conditions, but she studied very well.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

School exams are, generally speaking, the first kind of tests we take. They find out (31).....much knowledge we have gained. But do they really show how intelligent we are? After all, isn’t it a fact that some people who are very successful academically don’t have any common sense?

Intelligence is the speed at which we can understand and react to new situations and it is usually tested by logic puzzles. (32)......scientists are now preparing advanced computer technology that will be able to “read” our brains, for the present, tests are still the most popular ways of measuring intelligence.

A person’s IQ is his intelligence (33)......it is measured by a special test. The most common IQ tests are run by Mensa, an organization that was founded in England in 1946. By 1976 it had 1,300 members in Britain. Today there are 44,000 in Britain and 100,000 worldwide, (34)......in the US.

People taking the tests are judged in relation to an average score of 100, and those (35)......score over 148 are entitled to join Mensa. This works out at 2% of the population.

Question 31.

A. what

B. how

C. which

D. why

Question 32.

A. Although

B. Until

C. Despite

D. Because

Question 33.

A. how

B. as

C. that

D. so

Question 34.

A. enormously

B. highly

C. considerably

D. mainly

Question 35.

A. which

B. whom

C. why

D. who

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Although speech is the most advanced form of communication, there are many ways of communicating without using speech. Signals, signs, symbols, and gestures may be found in every known culture. The basic function of signal is to impinge upon the environment in such a way that it attracts attention, for example, the dots and dashes of a telegraph circuit. Coded to refer to speech, the potential for communication is really great. Less adaptable to the codification of words, signs also contain meaning in and of themselves. A stop sign or barber pole conveys meaning quickly and conveniently. Symbols are more difficult to describe than either signals or signs because of their intricate relationship with the receiver’s cultural perceptions. In some culture, applauding in a theater provides performers with an auditory symbol of approval. Gestures such as waving and handshaking also convey certain cultural messages.

Although signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are very useful, they do have a major disadvantage. They usually do not allow ideas to be shared without the sender being directly adjacent to the receiver. As a result, means of communication intended to be used for long distances and extended periods are based upon speech. Radio, television, and the telephone are only a few.

Question 36. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?

A. Gestures

B. Signs and signals

C. Speech

D. Communication

Question 37. What does the author say about the speech?

A. It is dependent upon the advances made by inventors.

B. It is the most advanced form of communication.

C. It is necessary for communication to occur.

D. It is the only true form of communication.

Question 38. All of the following are true EXCEPT............

A. Signal, symbols, signs and gestures are found in every culture.

B. Signal, symbols, signs and gestures are very useful.

C. Signal, symbols, signs and gestures also have some disadvantage.

D. Signal, symbols, signs and gestures are only used for long distance contact.

Question 39. The phrase “impinge upon” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to.........

A. prohibit

B. affect

C. vary

D. improve

Question 40. The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to...........

A. way

B. environment

C. speech

D. signal

Question 41. Applauding was cited as an example of..........

A. a signal

B. a sign

C. a gesture

D. a symbol

Question 42. Why were the telephone, radio, and the television invented?

A. Because people were unable to understand signs, signals, and symbols.

B. Because people wanted to communicate across long distances.

C. Because people believed that signs, signals, and symbols were obsolete.

D. Because people wanted new forms of communication.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

It is commonly believed in the United States that school is where people go to get an education. Nevertheless, it has been said that today children interrupt their education to go to school. The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.

Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no bounds. It can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in a kitchen or on a tractor. It includes both the formal learning that takes place in schools and the whole universe of informal learning. The agents of education can range from a revered grandparent to the people debating politics on the radio, from a child to a distinguished scientist. Whereas schooling has a certain predictability, education quite often produces surprises. A chance conversation with a stranger may lead a person to discover how little is known of other religions. People are engaged in education in infancy. Education, then, is a very broad, inclusive term. It is a lifelong process, a process that starts long before the start of school, and one that should be an integral part of one's entire life.

Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern varies little from one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at approximately the same time, take assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take exams, and so on. The slices of reality that are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an understanding of the workings of government, have usually been limited by the boundaries of the subjects being taught. For example, high school students know that they are not likely to find out in their classes the truth about political problems in their communities or what the newest filmmakers are experimenting with. There are definite conditions surrounding the formalized process of schooling.

Question 43. What is the main idea of the passage?

A. The best school teach a wide variety of subjects.

B. Education and schooling are quite different experiences.

C. Students benefit from schools, which require long hours and homework.

D. The more years students go to school, the better their education is.

Question 44. What does the author probably mean by using the expression “children interrupt their education to go to school” in paragraph 1?

A. Going to several different schools is educationally beneficial.

B. School vacations interrupt the continuity of the school year.

C. Summer school makes the school year too long.

D. All of people’s life is an education.

Question 45. The word “chance” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to..........

A. unexpected

B. usual

C. passive

D. lively

Question 46. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to.......

A. slices of reality

B. similar textbooks

C. boundaries

D. seats

Question 47. The phrase “For example,” in paragraph 3, introduces a sentence that gives examples of.......

A. similar textbooks

B. the results of schooling

C. the workings of a government

D. the boundaries of the subjects

Question 48. The passage supports which of the following conclusions?

A. Without formal education, people would remain ignorant.

B. Education systems need to be radically reformed.

C. Going to school is only part of how people become educated.

D. Education involves many years of professional training.

Question 49. The passage is organized by........

A. listing and discussing several educational problems

B. contrasting the meanings of two related words

C. narrating a story about excellent teacher

D. giving examples of different kinds of schools

Question 50. The writer seems to agree that........

A. Schooling is more important than education

B. Education is not as important as schooling

C. Schooling is unlimited and more informal

D. Education is more influential than schooling

Đáp án

1C	2A	3D	4A	5B
6C	7D	8B	9B	10C
11C	12A	13D	14B	15B
16A	17B	18B	19C	20C
21B	22A	23D	24B	25B
26C	27D	28A	29B	30C
31B	32A	33B	34D	35D
36D	37B	38D	39B	40D
41D	42B	43B	44D	45A
46A	47D	48C	49B	50D

Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 1

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 2)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1.

A. organized

B. escaped

C. maintained

D. explored

Question 2.

A. compose

B. program

C. compete

D. pronounce

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3.

A. village

B. purpose

C. police

D. student

Question 4.

A. engineer

B. entertain

C. national

D. Vietnamese

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. On ________ Internet and with cable television we can select information from a wide variety of sources.

A. 0

B. an

C. the

D. a

Question 6. I’m sorry. I didn’t break the vase on ________.

A. Time

B. intention

C. purpose

D. my mind

Question 7. As soon as I _________ smoking, I felt a lot better.

A. Took out

B. gave out

C. gave up

D. took up

Question 8. I ________ a very beautiful child while I was walking on the beach.

A. Was seeing

B. have seen

C. see

D. saw

Question 9. By working hard, you _________ achieve the results you desire.

A. Had better

B. should

C. would rather

D. may

Question 10. _________ today, there would be nowhere for them to stay.

A. Provided they arrive

B. if they arrived

C. if they arrive

D. had they arrived

Question 11. The children were quite attracted by the tamer and his animals ________ were performing on the stage.

A. Which

B. whom

C. that

D. who

Question 12. I don’t feel like _________ to the cinema now because I’m under the weather.

A. To have gone

B. to go

C. go

D. going

Question 13. Our plan _________ by the members of the committee.

A. Considers

B. is being considered

C. is considering

D. considered

Question 14. Caring for a sick relative is the task that brings both ______ and pain.

A. Pleased

B. please

C. pleasant

D. pleasure

Question 15. The heavy rain has caused _________ in many parts of our country.

A. Droughts

B. wind

C. floods

D. snow

Question 16. An economic __________ is a time when there is very little economic activity, which causes a lot of unemployment and poverty.

A. Mission

B. depression

C. floods

D. development

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable answer to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 17. John is complementing Jane n her new dress.

- John: You look great in this new dress. – Jane: ____________.

A. D not say anything about it.

B. I am glad you like it.

C. Not at all.

D. With pleasure.

Question 18. Harry is talking to judy after Judy had helped Harry.

- Harry: Thanks for your help. – Judy: ___________.

A. Don’t mentiong it. That’s the least thing I could do.

B. Me too

C. Long time no see

D. So long.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.

Question 19. One must reside in the United States 5 years in order to apply for citizenship.

A. Abundon

B. accommodate to

C. invade

D. live in

Question 20. When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the interviewer is saying or asking you.

A. Be related to

B. express

C. pay attention to

D. be interested in

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.

Question 21. School uniform is required in most of Vnese schools.

A. optional

B. depended

C. divided

D. compulsory

Question 22. The proposal for a new high-speed railway will go ahead though it meets with strong opposition from the public.

A. disagreement

B. demand

C. dislike

D. support

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 23. A basic knowledge of scial studies, such as history and geography, are considered a basic part of the education of every child.

A. Child

B. are

C. basic

D. history

Question 24. Many young people lack skills, good education, and financial to settle in the urban areas where many jobs are found.

A. Urban areas

B. financial

C. are found

D. the most

Question 25. It has been said that laser to be the most miraculous to cure patients.

A. To be

B. that

C. has been said

D. the most

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentences that is closest in meaning to each of the following question.

Question 26. I have never talked to the headmaster before.

A. It’s the first time I will ever have talked to the headmaster.

B. It’s the first time I had ever talked to the headmaster.

C. It’s the first time I ever talked to the headmaster.

D. It’s the first time I have ever talked to the headmaster.

Question 27. “I’m sorry I have to leave so early.” He said.

A. He apologized for having to leave early.

B. He apologized that he has to leave early.

C. He apologized to have to leave early.

D. He apologized to have left early.

Question 28. I did not come to your party because of the rain.

A. Even though it rained, I came to your party.

B. If it did not rain, I would come to your party.

C. Suppose it did not rain, I would come to your party.

D. It was the rain that prevented me from coming to your party.

Question 29. I don’t remember the man. You met him at the canteen last week.

A. I don’t remember the man whom you met at the canteen last week.

B. I don’t remember the man whom you met him at the canteen last week.

C. I don’t remember the man that you met him at the canteen last week.

D. I don’t remember the man whose you met at the canteen last week.

Question 30. They spent more maney. They had to work harder.

A. The more they spent money, the harder work they had.

B. The more money they spent, the more harder they had to work.

C. The more they spent money, the more hard work they had to work.

D. The more money they spent, the harder they had to work.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks.

Language is considered a significant (31)_________ of communication in international relations. People in modern world have no longer been bound to their own countries. Moreover, in keeping (32)________ with speedy scientific developments nowadays, they must widen their (33)_________ relations with those highly developed nations in other parts of the world, owning to the fact that no one is able to (34)_________ with any natives in the world, it is necessary for people to choose to learn a foreign language as a word-wide common means of communication (35)______ their own mother tongue or native language. That is why English has been chosen by most people to be a foreign language to master. More and more people use English and the number of those who lean English as a foreign language has been increasing so rapidly that it has outnumbered that of any other.

Question 31.

A. equipment

B. means

C. method

D. way

Question 32.

A. concerned

B. on

C. informed

D. safe

Question 33.

A. cooperative

B. conflicting

C. hostile

D. diplomatic

Question 34.

A. communicate

B. agree

C. deal

D. contact

Question 35.

A. besides

B. additional

C. beside

D. moreover

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Last week I went to visit Atlantic College, an excellent private college in Wales. Unusually, it gives young people much needed experience of life outside the classroom, as well as the opportunity to study for their exams. The students, who are aged between 16 and 18 and come from all over the world, spend the morning studying. In the a ernoon they go out and do a really useful activity, such as helping on the farm, looking a er people with learning difficulties, or checking for pollution in rivers.

One of the great things about Atlantic College students is that they come from many different social backgrounds and countries. As few can afford the fees of £20,000 over two years, grants are available. A quarter of the students are British, and many of those can only attend because they receive government help. ‘I really admire the college for trying to encourage international understanding among young people’, as Barbara Molenkamp, a student from the Netherlands, said. ‘You learn to live with people and respect them, even the ones you don’t like. During the summer holidays my mother couldn’t believe how much less I argued with my sister.’

To sum up, Atlantic College gives its students an excellent education, using methods which really seem to work.

Question 36. The word “it” is closest in meaning to _________.

A. The cassroom

B. life

C. Atlantic College

D. experience

Question 37. How has Barbara changed sice being at Atlantic College?

A. She is more confident than her sister.

B. She prefers her new friends to her family.

C. She knows a lot about ther countries.

D. She finds it easier to get on with people.

Question 38. What can a reader find out from this text?

A. what the British education system is like.

B. what kind of programme Atlantic College offers.

C. what the British education system is like.

D. how to become a student at Atlantic College.

Question 39. The word “argued” is closest in meaning to _________.

A. Quarreled

B. regarded

C. respected

D. admired

Question 40. The word “opportunity” is closest in meaning to __________.

A. Chance

B. lucky

C. respect

D. idea

Question 41. What is the writer's opinion of Atlantic College?

A. It doesn't allow students enough study time.

B. It doesn't give good value for money.

C. Its way of teaching is successful

D. Students are taught to like each other.

Question 42. What is the writer trying to do in the text?

A. givean opinion about a particular student.

B. describe the activities students do in their free time.

C. describe his own experience of education

D. give an opinion about a special type of education.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

For more than six million American children, coming home after school means coming back to an empty house. Some deal with the situation by watching TV. Some may hide. But all of them have something in common. They spend part of each day alone. They are called “latchkey children”. They are children who look after themselves while their parents work. And their bad condition has become a subject of concern.

Lynette Long was once the principal of an elementary school. She said, “we had a school rule against wearing jewelry. A lot of kids had chains around their necks with keys attached. I was constantly telling them to put the keys inside shirts. There were so many keys; it never came to my mind what they meant.” Slowly, she learned that they were house keys. She and her husband began talking to the children who had keys. They learned of the effect working couples and single parents were having on their children. Fear wasthe biggest problem faced by children at home alone. One in three latchkey children the Longs talked to reported being frightened. Many had nightmares and were worried about their own safety. The most common way latchkey children deal with their fears is by hiding. They may hide in a shower stall, under a bed or in a closet. The second is TV. They often turn the volume up. It’s hard to get statistics on latchkey children, the Longs have learned. Most parents are slow to admit that they leave their children alone.

Question 43. The phrase “they” means

A. latchkey children’s parents

B. empty houses

C. latchkey children’s

D. all American children

Question 44. What is the most common way for latchkey children to deal with fears?

A. Talking to the Longs    C. lying under a TV

B. Hiding somewhere    D. having a shower

Question 45. Lynette Long learned of latchkey children’s problems by

.

A. delivering questionaires

B. visiting their homes

C. interviewing their parents

D. talking to them

Question 46. Why did a lot of kids have chains around their necks with keys attached?

A. They had to use the keys to enter their houses when they came home.

B. Schools didn’t allow them to wear jewelry, so they wore keys instead.

C. They were fully grown and had become independent.

D. They had to use the keys to enter their houses when they came home.

Question 47. The main problem of latchkey children is that they

.

A. suffer a lot from being left alone

B. are growing in numbers

C. watch too much television during the day

D. are also found in middle-class families

Question 48. The phrase “an empty house” in the passage mostly means

A. a house with no people inside

B. a house with nothing inside

C. a house with no furniture

D. a house with too much space

Question 49. What do latchkey children suffer most from when they are at home alone?

A. Tiredness

B. Fear

C. Boredom

D. Lonliness

Question 50.The phrase “latchkey children” in the passage means children who

A. are locked inside houses with latches and keys

B. like to carry latches and keys with them everywhere

C. look after themselves while their parents are not at home

D. close doors with keys and watch TV by themselves

Đáp án

1B	2B	3C	4C	5C
6C	7C	8D	9D	10B
11C	12D	13B	14D	15C
16B	17B	18A	19D	20C
21A	22D	23B	24B	25A
26D	27A	28D	29A	30D
31B	32C	33A	34A	35A
36C	37D	38B	39A	40A
41C	42A	43C	44B	45D
46D	47A	48A	49B	50C

Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 1

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 3)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 1. You have just passed your exam. This makes your parents happy.

A. Having just passed your exam making your parents happy.

B. You have just passed your exam makes your parents happy.

C. That you have just passed your exam makes your parents happy.

D. You have just passed your exam which it makes your parents happy.

Question 2. You cannot completely avoid stress in your life. You need to find ways to cope with it.

A. After you can completely avoid stress in your life, you need to find ways to cope with it.

B. As long as you can completely avoid stress in your lives, you need to find ways to cope with it.

C. As you cannot completely avoid stress in your life, you need to find ways to cope with it.

D. Because stress can completely be avoided in your life, you need to find ways to cope with it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 3. Their children learn primarily by directly experiencing the world around it.

A. it

B. world

C. experiencing

D. primarily

Question 4. The number of wildlife habitat reserves have been established in order to save endangered species from extinction.

A. save

B. established

C. have

D. species

Question 5. Her husband asked her son what did he want for his birthday.

A. asked

B. son

C. his birthday

D. did he want

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 6 to 10.

Researchers in communication show that more feelings and intentions are (6)_______ and received nonverbally than verbally. Mehrabian and Wienerfollowing have stated that only 7% of message is sent through words, with remaining 93% sent nonverbal (7)_______.

Humans use nonverbal communication because:

1. Words have limitations: There are (8)_______ areas where nonverbal communication is more (9)_______ than verbal, especially when we explain the shape, directions, personalities which are expressed nonverbally.

2. Nonverbal signal are powerful: Nonverbal cues primarily express inner feelings while verbal messages deal basically with outside world.

3. Nonverbal message are likely to be more genuine: because nonverbal behaviors cannot be controlled as easily as spoken words.

4. Nonverbal signals can express feelings inappropriate to state: Social etiquette limits what can be said, but nonverbal cues can communicate thoughts.

5. A separate communication channel is necessary to (10)_______ send complex messages: A speaker can add enormously to the complexity of the verbal message through simple nonverbal signals.

Question 6.

A. thrown

B. mailed

C. posted

D. sent

Question 7.

A. postures

B. expressions

C. thought

D. gestures

Question 8.

A. numerous

B. sum

C. amount

D. great deal

Question 9.

A. effectiveness

B. effect

C. effectively

D. effective

Question 10.

A. get

B. make

C. have

D. help

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions .

Computer programmer David Jones earns £35,000 a year designing new computer games, yet he cannot find a bank prepared to let him have a cheque card. Instead, he has been told to wait another two years, until he is 18.

The 16-year-old works for a small firm in Liverpool, where the problem of most young people of his age is finding a job. David's firm releases two new games for the expanding home computer market each month. But David's biggest headache is what to do with his money.

Despite his salary, earned by inventing new programs within tight schedules, with bonus payments and profit-sharing, he cannot drive a car, take out a mortgage, or obtain credit cards.

He lives with his parents in their council house in Liverpool, where his father is a bus driver. His company has to pay £150 a month in taxi fares to get him the five miles to work and back every day because David cannot drive.

David got his job with the Liverpool-based company four months ago, a year after leaving school with six O-levels and working for a time in a computer shop. "I got the job because the people who run the firm knew I had already written some programs," he said.

"I suppose £35,000 sounds a lot but actually that's being pessimistic. I hope it will come to more than that this year." He spends some of his money on records and clothes, and gives his mother £20 a week. But most his spare time is spent working.

“Unfortunately, computing was not part of our studies at school," he said. "But 1 had been studying it in books and 'magazines for four years in my spare time. 1 knew what 1 wanted to do and never considered staying on at school. Most people in this business are fairly young, anyway."

David added: "I would like to earn a million and 1 suppose early retirement is a possibility. You never know when the market might disappear."

Question 11. Why is David different from other young people at his age?

A. He earns an extremely high salary.

B. He lives at home with his parents.

C. He does not go out much.

D. He is not unemployed.

Question 12. David's greatest problem is _______

A. learning to drive.

B. spending his salary.

C. inventing computer games.

D. making the banks treat him as an adult.

Question 13. He was employed by the company because _______

A. he works very hard.

B. he had written some computer programs.

C. he had worked in a computer shop.

D. he had learnt to use computers at school.

Question 14. He left school after taking O-levels because _______

A. he was afraid of getting too old to start computing.

B. he did not enjoy school.

C. he wanted to work with computers and staying at school did not help him.

D. he wanted to earn a lot of money.

Question 15. Why does David think he might retire early?

A. He wants to stop working when he is a millionaire.

B. You have to be young to write computer programs.

C. He thinks his firm might go bankrupt.

D. He thinks computer games might not always sell so well.

Question 16. The word " pessimistic " in the reading passage probably means_______

A. easy

B. negative

C. optimistic

D. positive

Question 17. The word " releases " in the reading passage can be replaced by_______

A. imports

B. holds

C. discharges

D. dissolves

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 18.

A. hated

B. watched

C. decided

D. wanted

Question 19.

A. group

B. couple

C. double

D. trouble

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 20. Of the two sisters, Thuy Kieu is the _______ .

A. eldest

B. elder

C. eldly

D. most eldly

Question 21. All applicants _______ hand in their application forms by Friday at the latest.

A. may

B. must

C. ought

D. might.

Question 22. At the end of the film, the young prince _______ in love with a reporter.

A. felt    B. made    C. fell    D. got

Question 23. As we wanted to be close to_______nature, we moved to the countryside.

A. Ø    B. a    C. an    D. the

Question 24. Sex before _______ is strongly disapproved in some cultures.

A. get married

B. marry

C. marriage

D. married

Question 25. Those _______ boys often play tricks on their friends.

A. mischievous

B. obedient

C. honest

D. well-behaved

Question 26. The child _______ parents both died is called an orphan.

A. which

B. who

C. that

D. whose

Question 27. You were wrong _______ her for something she didn't do.

A. criticizing

B. so as to criticize

C. to criticize

D. that criticizing

Question 28. He is going to marry a _______ girl next month .

A. tall pretty English

B. pretty tall English

C. pretty English tall

D. tall English pretty

Question 29. Who will _______ your baby when you are at work?

A. take after

B. take on

C. take over

D. take care of

Question 30. Not until a few years ago_______ playing football .

A. did he start

B. he has started

C. he started

D. had he started

Question 31. Mary is very_______ and caring. - I think she would make a good nurse.

A. mischievous

B. effect

C. efficient

D. disobedient

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 32. You will be home and dry in the interview if you have good qualifications and wide experience.

A. be successful

B. be unsuccessful

C. be satisfied

D. be unsatisfied

Question 33. She denied having stolen his mother's money.

A. refused

B. admitted

C. insisted on

D. reminded

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 34.

A. interesting

B. photocopy

C. difficult

D. effective

Question 35.

A. singer

B. future

C. reply

D. answer

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 36. Not until all their demands had been turned down did the workers decide to go on strike for more welfair.

A. rejected

B. sacked

C. reviewed

D. detected

Question 37. If the manager were here, he would sign your paper immediately

A. right ahead

B. currently

C. formally

D. right away

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 45.

A rather surprisingly geographical feature of Antarctica is that a huge freshwater lake, one of the world's largest and deepest, lies hidden there under four kilometers of ice. Now known as Lake Vostok, this huge body of water is located under the ice block that comprises Antarctica. The lake is able to exist in its unfrozen state beneath this block of ice because its waters are warmed by geothermal heat from the earth's core. The thick glacier above Lake Vostok actually insulates it from the frigid temperature (the lowest ever recorded on Earth) on the surface.

The lake was first discovered in the 1970s while a research team was conducting an aerial survey of the area. Radio waves from the survey equipment penetrated the ice and revealed a body of water of indeterminate size. It was not until much more recently that data collected by satellite made scientist aware of the tremendous size of the lake; satellite -borne radar detected an extremely flat region where the ice remains level because it is floating on the water of the lake.

The discovery of such a huge freshwater lake trapped under Antarctic is of interest to the scientific community because of potential that the lake contains ancient microbes that have survived for thousands upon thousands of years, unaffected by factors such as nuclear fallout and elevated ultraviolet light that have affected organisms in more exposed areas. The downside of the discovery, however, lies in the difficulty of conducting research on the lake in such a harsh climate and in the problems associated with obtaining uncontaminated samples from the lake without actually exposing the lake to contamination. Scientists are looking for possible ways to accomplish this.

Question 38. The passage mentions which of the following as a reason for the importance of Lake Vostok?

A. It may contain uncontaminated microbes

B. It can be studied using radio waves

C. It has already been contaminated.

D. It may have elevated levels of ultraviolet light.

Question 39. All of the following are true about the 1970 survey of Antarctica EXCEPT it__

A. was conducted by air

B. made use of radio waves

C. did not measure the exact size of the lake

D. was controlled by a satellite

Question 40. The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses

A. Problems with satellite- borne radar equipment

B. the harsh climate of Antarctica.

C. further discoveries on the surface of Antarctica

D. ways to study Lake Vostok without contaminating it

Question 41. The word "microbes" in paragraph 3 could be best be replaced by which of the following?

A. Pieces of dust

B. Tiny organisms

C. Rays of light

D. Trapped bubbles

Question 42. Which of the following is closet in meaning to "frigid" in paragraph 1?

A. Rarely recorded

B. Extremely cold

C. Never changing

D. Quite harsh

Question 43. The purpose of the passage is to ______

A. explain how Lake Vostok was discovered

B. provide satellite data concerning Antarctica

C. present an expected aspect of Antarctica's geography.

D. discuss future plans for Lake Vostok

Question 44. It can be inferred from the passage that the ice would not be flat if ______

A. radio waves were not used

B. Antarctica were not so cold

C. There were no lake

D. the lake was not so big

Question 45. What is true of Lake Vostok?

A. It is beneath a thick slab of ice

B. It is completely frozen

C. It is heated by the sun

D. It is not a saltwater lake

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 46. Mr Smith is having lunch in a restaurant.

      ~ Mr Smith "Could you bring me some water?" ~ Waiter: "_______"

A. No, thanks.

B. Of course you can.

C. I'm afraid not.

D. Certainly, sir.

Question 47. Mary and John are talking about John's new house.

      ~ Mary: "What a lovely house you have" ~ John: "_______"

A. Thanks. Hope you will drop in.

B. I think so.

C. No problem.

D. Of course, thanks.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 48. "If I were you, I'd ask the teacher for help" he said.

A. He suggested asking the teacher for help.

B. He said if he was me, he would ask the teacher for help.

C. He advised me to ask the teacher for help.

D. He told me that he'd ask the teacher for help.

Question 49. Is it necessary to meet the manager at the airport?

A. Did the manager have to be met at the airport?.

B. Does the manager have to be met at the airport?

C. Is the manager had to be met at the airport?

D. Does the manager have to meet at the airport?

Question 50. He was successful in his career thanks to his parents' support.

A. But for his parents' support, he wouldn't have been successful in his career.

B. If his parents hadn't supported him, he would have been successful in his career.

C. Had it not been for his parents' support, he wouldn't be successful in his career.

D. Had his parents supported him, he wouldn't be successful in his career.

Đáp án

1C	2C	3A	4C	5D
6D	7B	8A	9D	10D
11A	12B	13B	14C	15D
16B	17C	18B	19A	20B
21B	22C	23A	24C	25A
26D	27C	28B	29D	30A
31C	32B	33B	34D	35C
36A	37D	38A	39D	40D
41B	42B	43C	44C	45A
46D	47A	48C	49B	50A

Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 1

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 4)

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Children in the Netherlands must be at least four years old to (1)_______ primary education. Almost all 4-year-olds (99.3%) in the country indeed attend primary school, (2)________ this is not compulsory until children reach the age of. Primary school is free of charge. In most schools, children are grouped by age in mixed ability classes, with one teacher for all subjects. Primary school consists of 8 groups, thus schooling (3)_______ for 8 years. During the first two years, which is also called kindergarten, children receive an average of 22 hours of (4)______, during the last 6 years children receive an average of 25 hours per week. Schools are open 5 days a week, but children are free on Wednesday afternoon. At the end of primary school, or in group 8, schools advice on secondary school choice. Most schools use a national test to support this advice, for instance the ′Citotoets’, a test (5)_______ by the Central Institute for Test development.

Question 1.

A. afford

B. enter

C. come

D. run

Question 2.

A. although

B. despite

C. inspite

D. due to

Question 3.

A. spends

B. lasts

C. lengthens

D. takes

Question 4.

A. educate

B. educative

C. educator

D. education

Question 5.

A. develop

B. to develop

C. developed

D. developing

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Preparation is a key to a successful interview. Does the idea of going to a job interview make you feel a little nervous? Many people find that it is the hardest part of the employing process. But it is not really true. The more you prepare and practice, the more comfortable you will feel. You should find out as much as possible about the company before you go to the interview. Understand the products that they produce and the services that they provide . It is also good to know who the customers are and who the major competitors are. Practice makes perfect. It will also make you feel more confident and relaxed. So, practice your answers to common. Make a list of questions to ask, too. Almost all interviewers will ask if you have . This is a great opportunity for you to show your keenness, enthusiasm, and knowledge.

Make a great impression . The interview is your chance to show that you are the best person for the job. Your application or resume has already exhibited that you are qualified. Now it is up to you to show how your skills and experience match this position and this company. The employer will be looking and listening to determine if you are a good fit. He site will be looking for a number of different qualities, in addition to the skills that you possess. To make the best impression, dress appropriately; express your strengths; arrive early, by about 10 – 15 minutes; be enthusiastic; shake hands firmly; be an active listener; sit up straight and maintain eye contact; and ask.

After the interview, follow up with a thank-you note. This is a chance for you to restate your interest and how you can benefit the company. Your best bet is to by to time it so that the note gets there before the hiring: decision is made. You should also follow up with a phone call if you do not hear back from the employer within the specified time.

Question 6. The pronoun “it” refers to ________.

A. the job

B. the interview

C. the interviewer

D. the preparation

Question 7. What does the writer advise you to practice?

A. Asking and answering questions related to the job.

B. Making products that the company produces.

C. Providing services that the company serves.

D. Meeting some customers and competitors.

Question 8. Which should not be shown during your interview?

A. Punctuality

B. A firm hand shaking

C. Being properly-dressed

D. Weaknesses

Question 9. What shouldn’t you do to make the best impession?

A. listen actively

B. a firm hand shaking

C. being properly-dressed

D. weakness

Question 10. What does the employer look at to determine whether you are a good fit besides qualification?

A. experience

B. skills

C. qualities

D. all of them

Question 11. You can show your qualifications in the _________.

A. dressing style and punctuality

B. competing with the competitors

C. resume and letter of application

D. eye contact with the interviewer

Question 12. The word “key” is closest in meaning to _________.

A. unnessesary

B. important

C. unessential

D. properly

Question 13. Which is not included in the writer's advice?

A. You should not communicate with the interviewer after the interview.

B. You should make the best impression in the interview.

C. You should write a note to say thanks to the interviewer after the interview.

D. You should telephone the interviewer for any information after the interview.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

University Entrance Examination is very important to Vietnamese students. High school graduates have to take it and get high results to be admitted to universities. The pressure on the candidates remains very high despite the measures that have been taken to reduce the heat around these exams, since securing a place in a state university is considered a major step towards a successful career for young people, especially those from rural areas or disadvantaged families. In the year 2004, it was estimated that nearly 1 million Vietnamese students took the University Entrance Examination, but on average only 1 out of 5 candidates succeeded. Normally, candidates take 3 exam subjects, and each lasts 180 minutes for the fixed group of subjects they choose. There are 4 fixed groups of subjects: Group A: Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry; Group B: Mathematics, Chemistry and Biology; Group C: Literature, History, and Geography; Group D: Literature, Foreign Language, and Mathematics.

In addition to universities, there are community colleges, art and technology institutes, professional secondary schools, and vocational schools which offer degrees or certificates from a-few-month to 2-year courses.

According to Vietnam’s Ministry of Education and Training, there are currently 23 non-public universities, accounting for 11% of the total number of universities. These non-public universities are currently training 119,464 students or 11.7% of the total number of students. The government is planning to increase the number of non-public universities to 30% by 2007.

Question 14. University Entrance Examination in Vietnam is very _________.

A. interesting

B. stressful

C. free

D. easy

Question 15. The word “those” refers to _________.

A. exam subjects

B. young people

C. universities

D. examinations

Question 16. In 2004, the proportion of the students who got success in University Entrance Examination was about _________ percent.

A. 5     B. 10     C. 20    D. 50

Question 17. Which sentence refers to the University Entrance Examination in Vietnam?

A. Students find it easy to get success in the University Entrance Examination.

B. Maths is compulsory in the University Entrance Examination.

C. Students are not allowed to choose their exam subjects.

D. There are four fixed groups of exam subjects for students to choose.

Question 18. The word “non-public” can be replaced by ________.

A. state

B. goverment

C. dependent

D. private

Question 19. Which sentence is NOT true to the passage?

A. Getting admitted to universities is very important for young people to achieve success in their job.

B. High school graduates don’t have to take any exam in order to get a place in a university

C. It takes more than 2 years to complete vocational courses.

D. More than 1 million VNese students took the University Entrance Exam in 2004.

Question 20. According to the passage ________.

A. the Vietnamese government will close all non-public universities by next year.

B. the Vietnamese government does not appreciate non-public universities

C. the Vietnamese government encourages the establishing of non-public universities.

D. Vietnamese students have no alternative to continue their higher study besides universities.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 21. The situation seems to be changing minute by minute.

A. from time to time

B. time after time

C. again and again

D. very rapidly

Question 22. Now I understand why you moved out of that house.

A. I am surprised

B. it frustrates me

C. I am intrigued

D. it makes sense to me

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 23. In my judgement, I think Hem is the best physicist among the scientists of the SEA region.

A.I think

B.the best

C.among

D.the SEA region.

Question 24. It is believed that in the near future robots will be used to doing things such as cooking.

A.It is believed

B.in the near future

C.be used to doing

D.cooking.

Question 25. Passengers are required to arrive to the gate fifteen minutes before departure time.

A.are required

B.arrive to

C.before

D.departure time

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 26. Unlike the other Asian states, Singapore has ________ raw materials.

A. Hardly any

B. any hardly

C. hardly no

D. hardly some

Question 27. They are conducting a wide _________ of surveys throughout VN.

A. Collection

B. range

C. selection

D. group

Question 28. What do you mean, he’s watching television? He’s ______ to be washing the car.

A. Supposed

B. hoped

C. expected

D. thought

Question 29. Dick tried to place the _______ on others for his mistakes.

A. Blame

B. denial

C. complaint

D. hurt

Question 30. It _______ out that the major had brided several councils to vote for him.

A. Resulted

B. pointed

C. broke

D. turned

Question 31. It never ________ his mind that dishonesty would be discovered.

A. Crossed

B. came

C. spunk

D. passed

Question 32. Helen is ________ seafood, so she never tries these delicious dishes.

A. Allergic to

B. tired of

C. keen on

D. preferable to

Question 33. _______ the doctors know that it is very difficult to save the patient’s life, they will try their best.

A. But

B. although

C. despite

D. however

Question 34. The young girl _______ down completely on hearing of he father’s death.

A. Broke

B. fell

C. turned

D. went

Question 35. The mother ________ her son. She gives him whatever he wants.

A. Spoils

B. harms

C. ruins

D. damages

Question 36. _________, he couldn’t finish that test in 60 minutes.

A. As the boy was intelligent

B. As intelligent the boy was

C. intelligent as the boy was

D. intelligent as was the boy

Question 37. The concert didn’t come ________ our expectations.

A. Up against

B. up with

C. up to

D. round

Question 38. – “I can’t see the stage very well from here.” – “________.”

A. Neither can’t I.

B. So do I

C. Neither I can

D. I can’t either

Question 39. – “Do you mind if I use your phone?” – “__________.”

A. Not at all. Help yourself.

B. Yes, certainly.

C. Sorry, I have no idea.

D. You can say that again.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 40. Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the same region.

A. Stay unchanged

B. restrain

C. fluctuate

D. remain unstable

Question 41. We’d better speed up if we want to get there in time.

A. Turn down

B. slow down

C. put down

D. lie down

Mark the letter A,B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 42. If I had been home, everything would not have been that dramatic.

A. When I am home, everythings goes right.

B. Things would not be dramatized with my pressure.

C. Things weren’t worse because I was not home.

D. Everything goes wrong when I am not at home.

Question 43. Majoring in IT was not my priority.

A. My boss is not major in IT.

B. I liked something else more than IT.

C. I preferred IT to other courses.

D. I am not interested in IT.

Question 44. Our system is that the losing side pays for the hire of the basketball court.

A. If our side loses, then we will have to pay for the hire of the basketball court.

B. With us it’s the winners, not the losers who have to pay for the hire of the basketball court.

C. The losers obviously expect the winning side to pay for the hire of the basketball court.

D. The way we do it is, whichever side loses, that side pays for the hire of the basketball court.

Question 45. Smoking is an extremely harmful habit. You should give it up immediately.

A. You should give up smoking immediately and you will fall into an extremely harmful habit.

B. When you give up smoking immediately, you will affect your health with this harmful habit.

C. Stop your smoking immediately so it will become one of your extremely harmful habits.

D. As smoking is an extremly harmful habit, you should give it up immediately.

Question 46. He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot.

A. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much.

B. His behavior was very strange, that surprised me most.

C. I was almost not surprised by his strange behavior.

D. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 47.

A. physical

B. achievement

C. goverment

D. rational

Question 48.

A. university

B. applications

C. technology

D. entertainment

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 49.

A. average

B. indicate

C. application

D. grade

Question 50.

A. laughed

B. weighed

C. helped

D. missed

Đáp án

1B	2A	3B	4D	5C
6B	7A	8D	9D	10D
11C	12B	13A	14B	15B
16C	17D	18D	19D	20C
21D	22D	23A	24C	25B
26A	27B	28D	29B	30D
31A	32A	33B	34B	35A
36C	37B	38D	39A	40A
41B	42B	43B	44D	45D
46A	47B	48C	49C	50B

Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 1

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 5)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1.

A. campus

B. bamboo

C. rainfall

D. wildlife

Question 2.

A. applicant

B. maximum

C. counterpart

D. inflation

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3.

A. groove

B. kangaroo

C. goose

D. flood

Question 4.

A. concentrates

B. develops

C. considers

D. paragraphs

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. If people drove more carefully, there______________ so many accidents on the road.

A. would not be

B. will not be

C. wouldn’t have been

D. aren’t

Question 6. When he arrived at the station, his train

.

A. had already leaved

B. had already left

C. had had left

D. had already leaving

Question 7. This is the second time she's been here, ______________?

A. isn't this

B. has she

C. isn't it

D. hasn't she

Question 8. She expected _______ her boyfriend at the station but he wasn’t there.

A. to be meeting

B. meeting

C. to be met

D. to meet

Question 9. He ______ to the doctor after the accident, but he continued to play instead.

A. must have gone

B. needn’t have gone

C. shouldn’t have gone

D. should have gone

Question 10. The pianist ______ at the concert last night is internationally famous.

A. playing

B. played

C. who plays

D. whom played

Question 11. Taking part in the Advanced Engineering project gave him an opportunity to use his ______ to help his career.

A. creative

B. creativity

C. create

D. creatively

Question 12. Mary enjoys reading ________, adventure, and whatever else she can either buy or borrow.

A. romance

B. romantic

C. romanticize

D. romanticism

Question 13. ______ about gene-related diseases has increased is welcome news.

A. Scientific knowledge

B. It was scientific knowledge

C. Though scientific knowledge

D. That scientific knowledge

Question 14. Knocking on closed doors before entering can be a great way for children to practice _________ behaviors.

A. respecting

B. respected

C. respectful

D. respective

Question 15. If you want a flat in the centre of the city you have to pay through the ________ for it.

A. teeth

B. back of your head

C. nose

D. arm

Question 16. The H5N1 infected patients have to _______ others to prevent the virus from spreading

A. Take care of

B. get away

C. look after

D. stay away from

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 17. The teacher gave some hints on what could come out for the examination.

A. effects

B. symptoms

C. suggestions

D. demonstrations

Question 18. In the world of models, every model girl tries every trick in the book to stop others from succeeding.

A. every available method

B. all kinds of tricks

C. every story plot

D. all styles of writing

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19. The consequences of the typhoon were disastrous due to the lack of precautionary measures.

A. physical

B. severe

C. beneficial

D. damaging

Question 20. I’m sorry I can’t come out this weekend – I’m up to my ears in work.

A. very busy

B. very bored

C. very scared

D. very idle

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 21. Hoa is asking Hai, who is sitting at a corner of the room, seeming too shy.

         - Hoa: “Why aren’t you taking part in our activities? _______” - Hai: “Yes. I can. Certainly.”

A. Could you please show me how to get to the nearest post office?

B. Shall I take your hat off?

C. Can I help you?

D. Can you help me with these decorations?

Question 22. Mary and Nhung are drinking coffee and they are discussing about their projects

         - Mary: “ How is your project going, Nhung?” - Nhung: “……………….”

A. I’m working with John and Sally

B. What? Is it going to finish soon?

C. Great! Couldn’t be better.

D. Do you really want to go?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.

Every year, thousands of people travel to Britain in order to improve their standard of English. For many, however, this can be a painful experience due to the fact that it involves (23) _______ a strange school, staying in sometimes unpleasant accommodation and living in an unfamiliar culture. One answer to these (24) _______ is the Homestay method. With this, students are each assigned a teacher suited to their language requirements and interests. As well as giving individual tuition, the teacher provides the student (25 ) _______ information about what activities are available locally and takes them on trips. Students get between ten and twenty hours of tuition a week and are also expected to join in the family’s daily activities. The students speak English at all times and therefore learn (26) _______ to use the language in everyday situations. Homestay programmes usually last for up to four weeks. (27) _______ costs are higher than of regular language schools, students can feel confident that they will be receiving top-class language teaching in a safe and pleasant environment.

Question 23.

A. studying

B. attending

C. going

D. learning

Question 24.

A. problems

B. solutions

C. methods

D. ways

Question 25.

A. to

B. for

C. with

D. about

Question 26.

A. what

B. that

C. which

D. how

Question 27.

A. Although

B. Despite

C. Because

D. Since

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

In 1972, a century after the first national park in the United States was established at Yellowstone, legislation was passed to create the National Marine Sanctuaries Program. The intent of this legislation was to provide protection to selected coastal habitats similar To that existing for land areas designated as national parks. The designation of an areas a marine sanctuary indicates that it is a protected area, just as a national park is. People are permitted to visit and observe there, but living organisms and their environments may not be harmed or removed.

The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is administered by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, a branch of the United States Department of Commerce. Initially, 70 sites were proposed as candidates for sanctuary status. Two and a half decades later, only fifteen sanctuaries had been designated, with half of these established after 1978. They range in size from the very small (less than I square kilometer) Fagatele Bay National Marine Sanctuary in American Samoa to the Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary in California, extending over 15,744 square kilometers.

The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is a crucial part of new management practices in which whole communities of species, and not just individual species, are offered some degree of protection from habitat degradation and overexploitation. Only in this way can a reasonable degree of marine species diversity be maintained in a setting that also maintains the natural interrelationships that exist among these species.

Several other types of marine protected areas exist in the United States and other countries. The National Estuarine Research Reserve System, managed by the United States government, includes 23 designated and protected estuaries. Outside the United States, marine protected-area programs exist as marine parks, reserves, and preserves. Over 100 designated areas exist around the periphery of the Caribbean Sea. Others range from the well-known Australian Great Barrer Reef Marine Park to lesser-known parks in countries such as Thailand and Indonesia, where tourism is placing growing pressures on fragile coral reef systems. As state, national, and international agencies come to recognize the importance of conserving marine biodiversity, marine projected areas. whether as sanctuaries, parks, or estuarine reserves, will play an increasingly important role in preserving that diversity.

Question 28. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Differences among marine parks, sanctuaries, and reserves

B. Various marine conservation programs

C. International agreements on coastal protection

D. Similarities between land and sea protected environments

Question 29. The word “intent” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _______

A. repetition

B. approval

C. goal

D. revision

Question 30. The word “administered” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______

A. managed

B. recognized

C. opposed

D. justified

Question 31. The passage mentions which of the following as a threat to marine areas outside the United States?

A. Limitations in financial support

B. The use of marine species as food

C. Variability of the climate

D. Increases in tourism

Question 32. The word “periphery” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______

A. depth

B. landmass

C. warm habitat

D. outer edge

Question 33. According to the passage, when was the National Marine Sanctuaries Program established?

A. Before 1972

B. After 1987

C. One hundred years before national parks were established

D. One hundred years after Yellowstone National Park was established

Question 34. According to the passage, all of the following are achievements of the National Marine Sanctuaries Program EXCEPT

A. the discovery of several new marine organisms

B. the preservation of connections between individual marine species

C. the protection of coastal habitats

D. the establishment of areas where the public can observe marine life

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

Improving girls’ educational levels has been demonstrated to have clear impacts on the health and economic future of young women, which in turn improves the prospects of their entire community. The infant mortality rate of babies whose mothers have received primary education is half that of children whose mothers are illiterate. In the poorest countries of the world, 50% of girls do not attend secondary school. Yet, research shows that every extra year of school for girls increases their lifetime income by 15%.

Improving female education, and thus the earning potential of women, improves the standard of living for their own children, as women invest more of their income in their families than men do. Yet, many barriers to education for girls remain. In some African countries, such as Burkina Faso, girls are unlikely to attend school for such basic reasons as a lack of private latrine facilities for girls.

Higher attendance rates of high schools and university education among women, particularly in developing countries, have helped them make inroads to professional careers with better-paying salaries and wages. Education increases a woman's (and her partner and the family's) level of health and health awareness. Furthering women's levels of education and advanced training also tends to lead to later ages of initiation of sexual activity and first intercourse, later age at first marriage, and later age at first childbirth, as well as an increased likelihood to remain single, have no children, or have no formal marriage and alternatively, have increasing levels of long-term partnerships. It can lead to higher rates of barrier and chemical contraceptive use (and a lower level of sexually transmitted infections among women and their partners and children), and can increase the level of resources available to women who divorce or are in a situation of domestic violence. It has been shown, in addition, to increase women's communication with their partners and their employers, and to improve rates of civic participation such as voting or the holding of office.

Question 35. What can be the best title of the reading passage?

A. Education and Women's Empowerment

B. Woman's Rights to Lifelong Education

C. Female Education and Social Benefit

D. Education and Violence Against Women

Question 36. Which of the following statements is true according to the first paragraph

A. Many children in Asia have died because of their mother's ignorance

B. Children whose mother are illiterate are unable to grow healthily

C. The higher their education level is, the more money women ear

D. It is their husbands who make women improve their education level

Question 37. It is implied in the first paragraph that ______

A. the husband in a family takes little responsibility in rearing the children

B. there are numerous reasons for women not to come to class worldwide

C. the children's standard of living largely depends on their mother's income

D. the mother in a family makes every effort to raise the children effectively

Question 38. The word "barriers" in the passage is closest in meaning to _____

A. challenges

B. problems

C. difficulties

D. limits

Question 39. The phrase "make inroads into" in the passage can be best replaced with ______

A. make progress in

B. succeed in taking

C. celebrate achievement in

D. take the chance in

Question 40. According to the passage, furthering women's levels of education and advanced training does not result in

A. an increased likelihood to remain single among women

B. higher rates of barrier and chemical contraceptive use

C. improved rates of civic participation among women

D. an increased level of health awareness for the husbands

Đáp án

1A	2D	3D	4C	5A
6B	7C	8D	9D	10A
11B	12A	13D	14C	15C
16D	17C	18A	19C	20D
21D	22C	23B	24A	25C
26D	27A	28B	29C	30A
31D	32D	33D	34A	35C
36C	37B	38C	39B	40D

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